1. Which is the oldest in the cross section?
a. granite b. schist c. basalt d. sandstone e. limestone

2. What relationship allows you to tell the relative ages between the schist and conglomerate?
a. cross-cutting relationship b. principle of inclusion c. principle of stratigraphic superposition d. principle of original continuity e. principle of original horizontality

3. Which strata is the youngest in the sedimentary sequence NW of the fault?
a. breccia b. basalt c. sandstone d. limestone e. Unit C

4. What is the youngest sedimentary unit in the "folded sequence" beneath the Sandstone?
a. breccia b. basalt c. sandstone d. limestone e. Unit C

5. What type of fault cuts the cross-section?
a. a right-lateral strike-slip fault b. a left-lateral strike-slip fault c. a normal fault d. a thrust fault

6. What is the age of the fault relative to the age of the granite?
a. the granite is younger than the fault b. the granite is older than the fault c. they are the same age d. there is no way to tell the age relationships from the cross-section

7. contact between the schist and the folded sequence is:
a. nonconformity. b. angular unconformity. c. disconformity d. intrusive contact. e. tectonic contact.

8. contact between the sandstone unit and the underlying folded sequence is:
a. nonconformity. b. angular unconformity. c. disconformity. d. intrusive contact. e. a conformable depositional contact.

9. contact between Unit C and the underlying Unit B is:
a. nonconformity. b. angular unconformity. c. disconformity. d. a conformable depositional contact

10. contact between the diorite and the folded sequence is:
a. nonconformity. b. angular unconformity. c. disconformity. d. intrusive contact. e. tectonic contact.

11. fault cutting across the cross-section, dips in which direction?
a. Northwest b. Southwest c. Northeast d. Southeast

12. The fold Southeast of the fault is:
a. anticline b. syncline c. monocline d. homocline

13. What best descibes the activity of the fault?
a. The fault is inactive.
b. The fault could be active.
c. impossible to tell if the fault is active or not

14. In the rock record, how many periods of mountain building are depicted in this cross-section?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. there are no mountain building events depicted

15. Could faulting and igneous activity have occurred at the same time?
a. Yes b. No c. There is no way to tell

Answers

Answer 1

1. a. granite

2. c. principle of stratigraphic superposition

3. d. limestone

4. a. breccia

5. c. a normal fault

6. b. the granite is older than the fault

7. e. tectonic contact

8. e. a conformable depositional contact

9. d. a conformable depositional contact

10. d. intrusive contact

11. a. Northwest

12. b. syncline

13. b. The fault could be active.

14. c. 3

15. c. There is no way to tell

Explanation to the above given short answers are written below,

1. The oldest rock in the cross-section is indicated by the bottom layer, which is the granite.

2. The principle of stratigraphic superposition states that in a sequence of undisturbed sedimentary rocks, the lower layers are older than the upper layers. By observing that the conglomerate is below the schist, we can infer that the conglomerate is older than the schist.

3. The youngest strata in the sedimentary sequence NW of the fault is d. limestone, as it is the uppermost layer in that area.

4. The youngest sedimentary unit in the "folded sequence" beneath the Sandstone is a. breccia, which is the uppermost layer within the folded sequence.

5. The fault cutting across the cross-section is c. a normal fault, as indicated by the downward displacement of the rocks on one side of the fault.

6. The age relationship between the fault and the granite can be determined from the cross-section. Since the granite is cut by the fault, it indicates that the granite is older than the fault.

7. The contact between the schist and the folded sequence is e. tectonic contact, indicating that it is a result of tectonic forces rather than a conformable depositional contact.

8. The contact between the sandstone unit and the underlying folded sequence is e. a conformable depositional contact, suggesting that the sandstone was deposited on top of the folded sequence.

9. The contact between Unit C and the underlying Unit B is d. a conformable depositional contact, indicating that Unit C was deposited on top of Unit B without any significant interruption.

10. The contact between the diorite and the folded sequence is d. intrusive contact, indicating that the diorite is an intrusive igneous rock that intruded into the folded sequence.

11. The fault dips in the direction of a. Northwest, as indicated by the direction of the arrows pointing downward on the fault plane.

12. The fold Southeast of the fault is b. syncline, as it shows a downward fold with the youngest layers in the center.

13. The activity of the fault is uncertain and could be active, as indicated by the option b. The fault shows evidence of recent movement, but further investigation is needed to determine its current activity.

14. In the rock record, there are c. 3 periods of mountain building depicted in this cross-section, as indicated by the presence of three major fold structures.

15. It is not possible to determine from the given information whether faulting and igneous activity occurred at the same time. The cross-section does not provide direct evidence of the timing of these events.

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Related Questions

When evolutionary stasis is observed, is there a single explanation that accounts for it?

Answers

When evolutionary stasis is observed, there is not a single explanation that accounts for it.

Evolutionary stasis is a phenomenon that is characterized by the lack of phenotypic evolution in a lineage over a certain period of time. This can be observed in the fossil record and through genetic analyses of extant organisms. There are many factors that can contribute to evolutionary stasis, including stabilizing selection, genetic drift, and developmental constraints. Stabilizing selection occurs when the average phenotype of a population is favored, and extreme phenotypes are selected against.

This can lead to the fixation of alleles in a population, which can contribute to evolutionary stasis. Developmental constraints occur when developmental pathways limit the range of possible phenotypic variation in a lineage. For example, the mammalian body plan is constrained by the four-limbed tetrapod ancestor. In conclusion, there is not a single explanation that accounts for evolutionary stasis. Rather, it is the result of a complex interplay of genetic, developmental, and ecological factors.

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T/F genetic testing may be used as a basis for making employment decisions.

Answers

False. Genetic testing should not be used as a basis for making employment decisions. In many countries, including the United States, genetic information is protected by laws that prohibit discrimination based on genetic factors.

The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) in the United States, for instance, prohibits employers from using genetic information to make decisions about hiring, firing, promotions, or job assignments.

The purpose of these laws is to safeguard individuals from unfair treatment based on their genetic characteristics. Genetic testing provides insights into an individual's predisposition to certain diseases or conditions, but it does not determine their ability to perform job-related tasks. Employment decisions should be based on an individual's qualifications, skills, and performance rather than their genetic information.

Using genetic testing for employment decisions can have far-reaching implications, including potential stigmatization, unequal opportunities, and infringement of privacy. Therefore, it is important to adhere to legal and ethical standards that protect individuals from genetic discrimination and ensure fair and equal treatment in the workplace.

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(c) Describe the relationship between the concentration of glucose in the culture medium and the ATP concentration in the cells.


glucose O2 ATP

1. 5mM 0 0. 3

1. 5 mM 5 0. 65

1. 5 mM 10 0. 75

1. 5 mM 21 0. 85

25 mM 0 0. 4

25 mM 5 0. 7

25 mM 10 0. 8

25 mM

Answers

ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is a molecule that acts as a form of chemical energy in a living organism's cells. It is formed through the process of cellular respiration

when glucose is converted to ATP, and it plays a critical role in cellular metabolism. The relationship between glucose and ATP concentration can be described using the given table. The concentration of glucose in the culture medium is proportional to the concentration of ATP in the cells, and this proportion is different at varying glucose concentrations. At the lowest glucose concentration of 5mM, the ATP concentration is 0.3. However, when the glucose concentration is increased to 25mM, the ATP concentration reaches 0.4.

As the glucose concentration rises above 5 mM, there is a gradual increase in the ATP concentration, and this concentration increases at a faster rate as the glucose concentration approaches or exceeds 25 mM. Therefore, we can say that the concentration of glucose in the culture medium has a positive correlation with the ATP concentration in the cells, as shown in the table.More than 100 terms is not applicable for this question.

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Which of the following statements about the relationship between ants and acacia trees is/are accurate? Check all that apply.
The ants protect the acacias from other insects. Incorrect
The ants protect the acacias from epiphytic plants and vines.
The ants live in the hollow thorns of the acacias.
The ants are provided with sugar or other nutrition by some species of acacia

Answers

The following statements about the relationship between ants and acacia trees are accurate the ants protect the acacias from epiphytic plants and vines, The ants live in the hollow thorns of the acacias and The ants are provided with sugar or other nutrition by some species of acacia (Option 2,3,4).

The relationship between ants and acacia trees is mutualistic. In this relationship, both the ants and acacia trees get benefits from each other. The ants live inside the hollow thorns of the acacia trees, and in return, they protect the trees from herbivorous animals, including insects and epiphytic plants and vines. The hollow thorns provide shelter for the ants from other insects and herbivores, as well as a food source. Additionally, the ants are provided with sugar or other nutrition by some species of acacia. These are nectar-producing glands on the leaf stalks and leaflets, extrafloral nectaries on the stems, and specialized protein and lipid-rich Beltian bodies on the leaflets.

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In spermatozoa, a helical arrangement of mitochondria is located in the:

a. acrosome.
b. head.
c. cylindrical middle piece.
d. tail.

Answers

In spermatozoa, a helical arrangement of mitochondria is located in the cylindrical middle piece. The correct option is c

Which structure in spermatozoa contains a helical arrangement of mitochondria?

A sperm cell, often known as a spermatozoon, has a head, mid-piece, and a tail. The acrosome, nucleus, and postnuclear cap are all located in the head of the sperm. The mid-piece is situated in the sperm's tail, between the head and the principal piece, and it is where most of the cell's metabolic machinery is located.

In the sperm tail, the axoneme, end-piece, and fibrous sheath are the three sections. The mitochondrial sheath, which has a helical structure, is located in the spermatozoa's cylindrical middle piece. Therefore, the correct option is c. cylindrical middle piece.

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have them play with younger children.Question 291 / 1 ptsResearchers have come to the conclusion that ____ in determining intelligence. A genetics is more important the environment is more important B both genetics and the environment are important C. neither genetics nor the environment is important

Answers

The researchers have come to the conclusion that B. both genetics and the environment are important in determining intelligence.

Genetics refers to the genetic information inherited from one's biological parents. Certain genetic factors can influence cognitive abilities and potential intelligence. Traits related to intelligence, such as cognitive processing, memory, and problem-solving skills, can have a hereditary component. Genetic variations can affect the structure and functioning of the brain, which can impact intellectual abilities.

However, intelligence is not solely determined by genetics. The environment in which a person grows and develops also has a significant impact. Environmental factors encompass various external influences, such as upbringing, education, socio-economic status, cultural experiences, nutrition, and exposure to stimulating or challenging environments.

Environmental factors can shape cognitive development by providing opportunities for learning, intellectual stimulation, and access to resources that promote intellectual growth. Adequate nutrition, access to quality education, and a supportive and enriching home environment can positively contribute to intellectual development. Conversely, adverse environmental conditions, such as neglect, malnutrition, or limited educational opportunities, can negatively impact cognitive abilities.

Therefore, the consensus among researchers is that intelligence is a complex interplay between genetic predispositions and environmental influences. Both factors contribute to an individual's intellectual abilities and potential.

It's important to consider (B) both genetics and the environment when studying intelligence and understanding its multifaceted nature.

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in terms of overall methylation, what is the most accurate way to describe the genomes of cancer cells?

Answers

The most accurate way to describe the genomes of cancer cells in terms of overall methylation is that they exhibit aberrant or altered DNA methylation patterns.

DNA methylation is a chemical modification of DNA that involves the addition of a methyl group to the DNA molecule. In normal cells, DNA methylation plays a critical role in various biological processes, including gene regulation, genomic stability, and development.

However, in cancer cells, there are often widespread changes in DNA methylation patterns compared to normal cells. These changes can include both global hypomethylation (reduction in overall DNA methylation levels) and regional hypermethylation (increased DNA methylation at specific regions).

Global hypomethylation refers to a decrease in the overall methylation levels across the genome. This can lead to genomic instability, activation of normally suppressed transposable elements, and altered gene expression patterns.

Regional hypermethylation, on the other hand, involves the abnormal increase in methylation levels at specific gene regions. This can result in the silencing or inactivation of tumor suppressor genes, which are important for controlling cell growth and preventing the development of cancer.

It is worth noting that the methylation patterns in cancer cells can vary depending on the type of cancer, stage of the disease, and individual characteristics.

Therefore, the overall description of cancer cell genomes in terms of methylation would involve acknowledging the presence of aberrant DNA methylation patterns characterized by both global hypomethylation and regional hypermethylation.

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The study of the genetic variation in modern human populations has shown that: there is much more biological diversity within populations than between populations modem human populations are fixed in time and therefore can be separated in biological races humans can be classified into four biological races there is much more biological diversity between populations than within populations

Answers

The study of the genetic variation in modern human populations is; There is much more biological diversity within populations than to between populations, and  Humans can not be classified into four biological races. Option A and C is correct.

There is much more biological diversity within populations than between populations; This statement is supported by scientific evidence. Genetic studies consistently demonstrate that the majority of genetic variation exists within populations rather than between them. In other words, individuals within the same population can exhibit a wide range of genetic diversity, while individuals from different populations can still share significant genetic similarity.

Humans cannot be classified into four biological races; The idea of classifying humans into a small number of biological races is not scientifically valid. The concept of race is a social construct that has been used historically to categorize people based on superficial physical characteristics. However, genetically, human populations exhibit a high degree of intermixing and overlap, making it impossible to categorize individuals into a fixed number of races.

Hence, A. C. is the correct option.

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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is

"The study of the genetic variation in modern human populations has shown that: A) there is much more biological diversity within populations than between populations B) modem human populations are fixed in time and therefore can be separated in biological races C)  humans can be classified into four biological races D) there is much more biological diversity between populations than within populations."--

The membrane that surrounds a Golgi apparatus is very similar in structure to other membranes in the cell. How does this help the Golgi apparatus do its job?

Answers

The membrane that surrounds a Golgi apparatus is very similar in structure to other membranes in the cell. This helps the Golgi apparatus to do its job more than 100 times.

What is Golgi apparatus?Golgi apparatus is the stack of flattened sacs that is found in the cell, which is located close to the nucleus of the cell and is involved in packaging, modifying and transporting of lipids and proteins. It consists of a series of flattened membrane-bound sacs known as cisternae, which are stacked on one another.What is the function of Golgi apparatus?The Golgi apparatus plays a significant role in the functioning of the cell. The function of the Golgi apparatus is to modify and package proteins and lipids into vesicles for delivery to the targeted locations.

It is responsible for sorting and packaging the lipids and proteins into vesicles. The Golgi apparatus modifies the proteins that it receives by attaching carbohydrate molecules to them. These molecules play a significant role in stabilizing the proteins and aiding in their transportation.What is the similarity in the membranes of the Golgi apparatus and the cell?The membrane of the Golgi apparatus is very similar to the other membranes in the cell. The membranes in the cell are formed by a bilayer of lipids and proteins that serve as a barrier for cells.

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cell in eardrum considere what might happen it a heart or eyeball gene was expressed in this locaiton

Answers

If a heart or eyeball gene was expressed in the location of the cell in the eardrum, it could result in some abnormalities in the structure and function of the ear.

If a heart or eyeball gene was expressed in the location of the cell in the eardrum, it could result in some abnormalities in the structure and function of the ear. This is because the genes that control the development and function of the heart and the eye are different from those that control the development and function of the ear.
The eardrum is a thin membrane that separates the outer ear from the middle ear. It contains several different types of cells, including keratinocytes, fibroblasts, and mucous cells. These cells work together to help transmit sound waves from the outer ear to the middle ear.
If a heart or eyeball gene was expressed in the eardrum, it could cause the cells in the eardrum to undergo some changes in their structure and function. For example, the cells might become larger or smaller, or they might produce different proteins than they normally would. This could lead to changes in the way that the eardrum transmits sound waves, which could result in hearing loss or other problems.
In conclusion, if a heart or eyeball gene was expressed in the location of the cell in the eardrum, it could have significant effects on the structure and function of the ear. While further research is needed to fully understand the implications of such an expression, it is clear that this would be an abnormal occurrence that could result in a range of issues.

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In an ecosystem with four levels - producers, primary consumers, and two higher-level-consumers - describe where the decomposers operate within the context of these trophic levels. Provide two examples.
Food Chains

Food chains begin with producers which are photoautotrophic organisms that convert the suns energy into chemical energy. These organisms support the herbivors or primary consumer which in turn support the upper levels of the food chain. This chain ultimately demonstrates the transfer of energy in an ecosystem.

Answers

Within the context of the trophic levels mentioned (producers, primary consumers, and two higher-level consumers), decomposers operate primarily at the lowest trophic level, which is the level of producers.

Their role is crucial in breaking down organic matter, such as dead plants and animals, into simpler substances and nutrients that can be recycled back into the ecosystem. Decomposers play a vital role in the nutrient cycle and the overall functioning of the ecosystem.

Examples of decomposers include:

1. Bacteria: Certain bacteria, such as saprophytic bacteria, act as decomposers by breaking down organic matter.

They play a key role in the decomposition process by releasing enzymes that break down complex organic molecules into simpler forms that can be absorbed by other organisms.

2. Fungi: Various types of fungi, such as mushrooms and molds, are decomposers. They secrete enzymes that break down organic matter externally and absorb the resulting nutrients.

Thus, these decomposers help maintain the balance of the ecosystem by recycling nutrients and breaking down dead organic matter, which helps to release energy and maintain nutrient availability for the producers and other organisms in the food chain.

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what happens if growth appears on both control plates – how would you explain this? for those microorganisms that grew best at 37⁰c, what do you think is the likely source of these microbes? why?

Answers

If growth appears on both control plates, it could be possible that the control plates were contaminated by microbes from the environment or human error.  For microorganisms that grew best at 37⁰C, the likely source of these microbes could be from the human body

For microorganisms that grew best at 37⁰C, the likely source of these microbes could be from the human body since the human body temperature is approximately 37⁰C. This would make it an ideal temperature for these microbes to grow and thrive.

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All living things are made of cells. What might be a major difference between cells that are found in human skin and human nerve cells?


A) human skin cells do not have a nucleus

B) nerve cells do not have a membrane so signals can be sent outside the cell

C) nerve cells are much longer to aid in sending signals to and from the brain

D) skin cells lack cytoplasm since nutrients do not need to pass in intracellular space

Answers

The major difference between cells that are found in human skin and human nerve cells is option D which is skin cells lack cytoplasm since nutrients do not need to pass in intracellular space.

Cells explained.

Cells refer to the most small unit in which human existence is base on. Group of cells combine to form tissues.

Cells has three major components and these are nucleus, cytoplasm and cell membrane.

The cell membrane is the layer that surround the cells and these help to control materials that move in and out of the cells.

Cells is the major constituent of living things.

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secretion of insulin from the highlighted structure results in ________.

Answers

Secretion of insulin from the highlighted structure results in decreased blood sugar levels.

The pancreas, which is the highlighted structure, secretes insulin that controls several metabolic processes and blood sugar levels. The beta cells in the pancreatic islets of Langerhans create the hormone insulin. The pancreas releases insulin into the circulation when blood glucose levels increase, as they do after eating.

Numerous physiological processes depend heavily on insulin. It makes it easier for cells to absorb glucose, boosting its conversion to energy or storage as glycogen in the muscles and liver. Additionally, insulin encourages protein synthesis and prevents the breakdown of fat reserves.

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Blood pressure within the glomerulus varies directly with systemic blood pressure.

a. true
b. false

Answers

Blood pressure within the glomerulus is not directly proportional or directly varying with systemic blood pressure. Therefore, the given statement is false.

The blood pressure within the glomerulus is regulated by complex mechanisms involving the constriction and dilation of afferent and efferent arterioles, as well as the autoregulation of blood flow in the kidneys. This pressure is responsible for the filtration.

While systemic blood pressure can have an indirect influence on renal blood flow and glomerular pressure, it is not a direct and proportional relationship.

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The average number of white blood cells per cubic mm in humans is about 7,250 (this is highly variable). We'll assume that μ = 7,250, and σ = 1,750. Let's also assume that the number of white blood cells follows a normal distribution.
a) Give the values for the number of white blood cells for the middle 50% of people.
(Hint/comment: if, for example, you want values for the middle 60%, you need to figure out many percent go in each tail. In other words, if you want the middle 60% that implies that you have 40% left that you need to divide equally into each tail. You will need two numbers in your answer. Draw a picture to help you.)
b) Give the values for the number of red blood cells for the middle 90% of people.
c) Give the 95th percentile.
d) Are you surprised by the answers to (b) and (c)? Explain . If you're not sure what's going on, draw some pictures of the normal curves.
e) Calculate the 1st percentile.
f) Suppose you come across a person with a white blood cell count of 14,250 per cubic mm. Would you think anything was unusual about this person? Why or why not (make sure you explain this!!).

Answers

a) The values for the number of white blood cells for the middle 50% of people are between 5,125 and 9,375. b) The values for the number of white blood cells for the middle 90% of people are between 1,525 and 13,975. c) The 95th percentile for the number of white blood cells is approximately 11,453. d) No, I am not surprised by the values in part (b) and (c).  e) The 1st percentile for the number of white blood cells is approximately 2,320. f) Yes, a white blood cell count of 14,250 per cubic mm would be considered unusual.

a) To find the values for the middle 50%, we need to consider the range that encompasses 50% of the distribution. Since the distribution is symmetrical, we can divide the remaining 50% (100% - 50%) equally into the two tails. By using the z-scores associated with the percentiles, we can find the corresponding values. In this case, the z-scores for the 25th and 75th percentiles are -0.674 and 0.674, respectively. By applying the z-score formula (z = (x - μ) / σ), we can calculate the values by substituting the given mean (μ = 7,250) and standard deviation (σ = 1,750) into the formula.

b) Similar to part (a), we divide the remaining 10% (100% - 90%) equally into the two tails. By finding the z-scores associated with the 5th and 95th percentiles (-1.645 and 1.645, respectively) and applying the z-score formula, we can calculate the values using the given mean and standard deviation.

c) To find the 95th percentile, we locate the z-score associated with it, which is approximately 1.645. By applying the z-score formula, we can calculate the corresponding value.

d) The normal distribution is known to have most of its data concentrated around the mean, with decreasing probability towards the tails. Therefore, it is expected that the middle 90% of people would have a wider range of white blood cell counts compared to the middle 50%. Similarly, the 95th percentile represents a higher value, indicating that it is a more extreme observation but still within the expected range according to the normal distribution.

e) By finding the z-score associated with the 1st percentile (-1.96), we can calculate the corresponding value using the z-score formula.

f) Based on the given mean and standard deviation, a count of 14,250 falls significantly above the mean (μ = 7,250) and more than two standard deviations (σ = 1,750) away from it. This suggests that the value is relatively rare in the population and represents an extreme observation. Further investigation or consultation with a healthcare professional would be warranted to determine the cause of such an elevated white blood cell count as it may indicate an underlying medical condition or infection.

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the ___ the level of cognitive resources used to complete a motor skill the ___ the degree of automaticity

Answers

The lesser the level of cognitive resources used to complete a motor skill, the greater the degree of automaticity. This is because automaticity refers to the ability to perform a skill with minimal attentional or cognitive resources.

What is automaticity?

Automaticity is the capability of doing something without paying much attention to the task. It is a result of a lot of training or practice that eventually transforms a formerly complicated activity into a nearly unconscious one.The acquisition of a motor skill is an excellent example of how automaticity develops. When we first learn to ride a bicycle, we are concentrated, alert, and may struggle to maintain our balance. It necessitates a lot of cognitive resources to accomplish this task. However, after repeated practice, the task becomes simpler to perform and necessitates fewer cognitive resources to complete.

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A nurse researcher undertook an in-depth study to understand the decision-making process of patients considering participation in a Phase III cancer treatment RCT. What research tradition likely underpinned this study?
A. Phenomenology
B. Ethnography
C. Grounded theory
D. Narrative analysis

Answers

The research tradition that likely underpinned the nurse researcher's study on the decision-making process of patients considering participation in a Phase III cancer treatment RCT is: C. Grounded theory.

Grounded theory is a research tradition that focuses on generating theoretical explanations or frameworks based on systematic and in-depth analysis of qualitative data. It aims to develop theories that are "grounded" in the data collected from the research participants, rather than being driven by preconceived hypotheses or theories.

In the context of the nurse researcher's study, grounded theory would involve conducting interviews or observations with patients who are considering participation in a Phase III cancer treatment randomized controlled trial (RCT). The researcher would collect rich qualitative data on patients' experiences, thoughts, and decision-making processes regarding participation in the trial. This data would then be analyzed in a systematic and iterative manner, allowing the researcher to identify patterns, themes, and categories that emerge from the data.

By using grounded theory, the nurse researcher would be able to develop a theoretical understanding of the decision-making process of patients considering participation in the RCT. The resulting theory would be grounded in the perspectives and experiences of the research participants, providing insights into their thoughts, emotions, and factors influencing their decisions.

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Calculate the total energy intake for a 21-year-old male weighing 78 kg with a moderate activity level who is losing weight at 150 kcals/day.
You may need the following equations:
1.0 kcal/kg body weight per hour
0.9 kcal/kg body weight per hour
Type your answers in the blanks using only the numbers (no units, no commas, round to the nearest whole number).

Answers

The total energy intake for a 21-year-old male weighing 78 kg with a moderate activity level who is losing weight at 150 kcal/day is approximately 3406.8 kcal/day.

To calculate the total energy intake for a 21-year-old male with a moderate activity level who is losing weight, we need to consider the energy expenditure for both basal metabolic rate (BMR) and physical activity.

Calculate Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR):

BMR = 1.0 kcal/kg body weight per hour

= 1.0 kcal/kg/hr * 78 kg

= 78 kcal/hr

Calculate Total Energy Expenditure (TEE) for moderate activity level:

TEE = BMR * 1.9 (moderate activity level)

= 78 kcal/hr * 1.9

= 148.2 kcal/hr

To calculate Total Energy Expenditure per day:

TEE per day = TEE * 24 hours

= 148.2 kcal/hr * 24 hours

= 3556.8 kcal/day

Energy intake for weight loss = TEE per day - 150 kcal/day

= 3556.8 kcal/day - 150 kcal/day

= 3406.8 kcal/day

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Based on the information in Table 1, which of the following statements best describes the production of nearly identical AFGPs in these two species of fish? A. The fish eat the same type of food, which resulted in the evolution of similar digestive proteins. B. The fish live in environments with similar selective pressures, and those that produce AFGPs are better able to survive. C. The Antarctic fish species evolved into a separate species after being geographically isolated from the Arctic population because of commercial fishing. D. The production of similar AFGPs was due to random splicing of exons in both species.

Answers

  Based on the information provided in Table 1, the best description for the production of nearly identical antifreeze glycoproteins (AFGPs) in the two species of fish is that they live in environments with similar selective pressures, and those that produce AFGPs are better able to survive. This corresponds to option B.

  Table 1 likely contains information related to the presence and characteristics of AFGPs in different fish species. AFGPs are proteins that help organisms survive in cold environments by preventing ice formation and growth within their bodies. The fact that both species of fish produce nearly identical AFGPs suggests that they have adapted to similar environmental conditions, namely cold habitats.

  Living in similar environments with cold temperatures likely exerted selective pressures on these fish populations. Fish individuals that were able to produce AFGPs had an advantage in surviving and thriving in these cold environments. Through natural selection, individuals with beneficial adaptations, such as AFGP production, had higher fitness and were more likely to pass on their genes to the next generation.

  Therefore, the best explanation is that the production of nearly identical AFGPs in these two fish species is a result of living in environments with similar selective pressures, where those individuals capable of producing AFGPs had a survival advantage.

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Joe has classic hemophilia, an X-linked recessive disease. Could Joe have inherited the gene for this disease from the following persons? Answer yes or no for each. a) His mother's mother b) His mother's father c) His father's mother d) His father's father

Answers

The correct option is  a) His mother's mother: Yes, it is possible. If Joe's mother is a carrier of the gene for hemophilia, there is a 50% chance that she inherited it from her mother. If her mother is a carrier or affected by hemophilia, she could have passed on the gene to Joe's mother, who in turn could have passed it on to Joe.

Hemophilia is a genetic disorder characterized by the body's inability to form blood clots properly. It is typically an inherited condition, passed down from parents to their children through a faulty gene on the X chromosome. This gene mutation affects the production or functionality of certain clotting factors, such as factor VIII (hemophilia A) or factor IX (hemophilia B). As a result, individuals with hemophilia experience prolonged bleeding episodes, even from minor injuries.

They may also develop spontaneous internal bleeding, particularly in joints and muscles, leading to pain, swelling, and potential long-term damage. Treatment for hemophilia involves regular replacement of the deficient clotting factor through injections or infusions to control and prevent bleeding episodes, along with careful monitoring and management of physical activities and injuries.

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this question considered permutations of ""artemisrocket"".a) how many permutations are there total?

Answers

The total number of permutations for the given term "Artemis rocket" is 479001600. A permutation is defined as the number of ways to select and arrange a set of objects.

This can be calculated using the following formula:

Permutation = n! / (n - r)!

Here, n represents the total number of objects and r represents the number of objects that are selected and arranged. Also, "!" represents the factorial operation. Now, we can use the above formula to find the number of permutations for the given term "Artemis rocket". n = 12 (total number of characters in the term).

Using all the 12 characters: r = n = 12

Permutation = n! / (n - r)!

Permutation = 12! / (12 - 12)!

Permutation = 12! / 0!

Permutation = 12 x 11 x 10 x 9 x 8 x 7 x 6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1

Permutation = 479001600

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conduct some quick internet research to find at least three components that scientists believe need to exist in order for life to form (on a planet or a moon!)

Answers

Based on scientific research and current understanding, here are the components that scientists believe are necessary for life to form on a planet or moon are liquid water, organic molecules and energy sources.

1. Liquid Water: Water is considered a crucial ingredient for life as we know it. The presence of liquid water provides a medium for chemical reactions to occur, facilitates the transport of nutrients, and serves as a solvent for essential biomolecules. It also supports various metabolic processes. While the specific conditions for liquid water to exist may vary depending on factors like atmospheric pressure and temperature, the presence of liquid water is widely considered a key requirement for the emergence of life.

2. Organic Molecules: Organic molecules, which contain carbon atoms, are fundamental building blocks for life. Scientists believe that the availability of complex organic molecules, such as amino acids, nucleotides, and lipids, is necessary for the formation of life. These molecules can serve as the basis for the formation of proteins, nucleic acids (like DNA and RNA), and cell membranes. Organic molecules can be synthesized through abiotic processes, such as the interaction of simple molecules in the presence of energy sources like lightning, UV radiation, or hydrothermal vents.

3. Energy Source: Life requires an energy source to fuel metabolic processes and sustain biological activity. On Earth, the most common energy sources utilized by organisms are sunlight (in photosynthesis) and chemical reactions (in chemosynthesis). Sunlight provides energy for plants and other photosynthetic organisms, while chemosynthetic organisms derive energy from chemical reactions, often in environments with no sunlight, such as deep-sea hydrothermal vents. An energy source is crucial for driving the synthesis of complex molecules, maintaining cellular processes, and supporting the growth and reproduction of living organisms.

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2. What is the geologic range From the Sopar period through the man period. 3. Imagine that you have discovered an outcrop of sedimentary rock that contains fossil shark teeth and fossils of Archimedes. In which time periods might this rock have formed? From the San period through the Dallozo period. 4. What is the geologic range of the fossil shown in Figure 10,15? & Journan Permlan period through the From the period. 5. What is the geologic range of the fossil shown in Figure 10.16? From the Sian period through the Devovan period. 6. Imagine that you have discovered a rock outcrop that contains the fossils identified in Questions 4 and 5. What is the geologic range of this rock? From the Cambrian period through the Paleozoic period. 7. Figure 10.17 illustrates two different sequences of sedimentary rock strata located some distance apart. a. Determine the geologic range/age of each rock layer by its fossil content and write your answer on the figure.. b. Draw lines connecting the rock layers of the same age in outcrop 1 to those in outcrop 2. c. What term is used for the process of matching one rock unit with another of the same age? cm A Figure 10.15 Photo to accompany Question 4. (Photo by Dennis Tasa) cm. NOVE 10.16 Photo to accompany Question 5. 02019 Pearson Education, Inc. d. Based on the ages of the rock layers in outcrop 1, identify an unconformity. Remember that an unconformity is a break in the rock record. Draw a wavy line on the figure to represent the unconformity. Lepidodendron Calamites Rhodocrinites Sharks Lepidodendron பாப Ginkgo Dimetrodon CIS Archimedes Agnostus Eurypterus Phacops Period Period Period Period Period Period Period Period Period Outcrop 1 ▲ Figure 10.17 Sequences of sedimentary rock layers to accompany Question 7. Ceratites Ginkgo Tyrannosaurus Inoceramus Ichthyosaurus Paleolimulus A Outcrop 2 Sharks

Answers

The Sopar period and the Man period are not recognized geologic periods. Therefore, it is not possible to provide a geologic range for these periods.

2. The geologic range from the Sopar period through the man period is Paleozoic period.

3. This rock might have formed in the Permian or Carboniferous period.

4. The geologic range of the fossil shown in Figure 10.15 is from the Journalian period through the Permian period.

5. The geologic range of the fossil shown in Figure 10.16 is from the Silurian period through the Devonian period.

6. If we discovered a rock outcrop that contains the fossils identified in Questions 4 and 5, the geologic range of this rock would be from the Silurian period through the Permian period.

7a. The geologic range/age of each rock layer by its fossil content is:
- Outcrop 1:
- Layer 1: Paleozoic period (Lepidodendron and Calamites)
- Layer 2: Permian period (Dimetrodon)
- Layer 3: Triassic period (Ginkgo)
- Layer 4: Cretaceous period (Tyrannosaurus)
- Layer 5: Cenozoic period (Inoceramus)
- Layer 6: Cenozoic period (Ichthyosaurus)
- Outcrop 2:
- Layer 1: Paleozoic period (Lepidodendron and Calamites)
- Layer 2: Devonian period (Ceratites)
- Layer 3: Jurassic period (Paleolimulus)
- Layer 4: Cretaceous period (Tyrannosaurus)
- Layer 5: Cenozoic period (Ginkgo)
- Layer 6: Cenozoic period (Inoceramus)
7b. The lines connecting the rock layers of the same age in outcrop 1 to those in outcrop 2 are:
- Layer 1: Paleozoic period (Lepidodendron and Calamites)
- Layer 4: Cretaceous period (Tyrannosaurus)
- Layer 5: Cenozoic period (Inoceramus)
7c. The term used for the process of matching one rock unit with another of the same age is correlation.
7d. The unconformity in outcrop 1 can be identified between Layer 3 and Layer 4. The wavy line to represent the unconformity is:
- Layer 3: Triassic period (Ginkgo)
- Layer 4: Cretaceous period (Tyrannosaurus)

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the strength and structural integrity of the skin are primarily provided by the

Answers

The strength and structural integrity of the skin are primarily provided by the protein called collagen. Collagen is a fibrous protein that forms a network of fibers within the dermis, the middle layer of the skin. It is responsible for the skin's tensile strength, giving it resilience and resistance to stretching.

Collagen fibers are densely packed and arranged in a parallel fashion, providing structural support to the skin. They contribute to the skin's ability to withstand external forces and maintain its shape. Collagen also plays a role in wound healing, as it helps in the formation of new tissue during the repair process.

In addition to collagen, other components such as elastin and keratinocytes also contribute to the strength and elasticity of the skin. Elastin provides flexibility and allows the skin to stretch and recoil, while keratinocytes produce the protein keratin, which forms a protective layer on the outermost surface of the skin.

Overall, the interplay of collagen, elastin, and keratinocytes ensures the strength, structural integrity, and resilience of the skin, maintaining its function as a protective barrier for the body.

Collagen is the primary protein responsible for providing the strength and structural integrity of the skin, ensuring its resilience, resistance to stretching, and overall functionality as a protective barrier.

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Give one example of each relationship from the scrub (shrubland) biome :

1- competition 2- predator/prey 3- mutualism 4- commensalism 5- parasitism

Answers

1. Competition: Competition between different shrub species for limited resources in the scrub biome.

2. Predator/Prey: Predation between hawks (predators) and rabbits (prey) in the scrub biome.

3. Mutualism: Mutualistic relationship between hummingbirds and flowering shrubs for pollination in the scrub biome.

4. Commensalism: Commensal relationship between cattle egrets and grazing mammals in the scrub biome.

5. Parasitism: Parasitic relationship between ticks and mammals (such as deer or rodents) in the scrub biome.

Explanation to the above provided short answers are written below,

1. Competition: In the scrub biome, various shrub species compete for limited resources like water, sunlight, and nutrients. They strive to outcompete one another in order to secure their survival and reproduction.

This competition can be observed in the form of root competition, where shrubs with deeper and more extensive root systems may have an advantage in accessing water and nutrients.

2. Predator/Prey: A classic predator/prey relationship in the scrub biome is the interaction between birds of prey (predators) and small mammals like rabbits (prey).

Birds of prey, such as hawks or eagles, hunt and feed on the small mammals, using their aerial hunting skills and sharp talons. This relationship is essential for controlling the population of small mammals and ensuring the predator's food supply.

3. Mutualism: In the scrub biome, a mutualistic relationship exists between hummingbirds and flowering shrubs. Hummingbirds feed on the nectar produced by the shrubs, while inadvertently transferring pollen from one flower to another, aiding in pollination.

The shrubs benefit from this pollination process, which leads to successful reproduction, while the hummingbirds obtain a rich source of energy from the nectar.

4. Commensalism: Commensalism can be observed between cattle egrets and grazing mammals, such as deer or cattle, in the scrub biome. The cattle egrets follow the grazing mammals, feeding on the insects that are disturbed by their movement.

The egrets benefit from the easy access to food, while the presence of the egrets has no significant impact on the grazing mammals.

5. Parasitism: Ticks in the scrub biome exhibit a parasitic relationship with mammals such as deer or rodents. Ticks attach themselves to the host's skin and feed on their blood.

They benefit by obtaining nutrients for their survival and reproduction, while the host mammals may experience discomfort, transmit diseases, or suffer from weakened health as a result of the parasitic infestation.

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Which activities may discourage some people from purchasing a hybrid vehicle? Check all that apply.


A)digging into the earth to search for metals

B)paying premiums to recharge car batteries

C)disposing of large amounts of hazardous waste

D)converting coal plants into other industrial plants

E)consenting to auto mechanics recycling old batteries

Answers

From the options, the activities that may discourage some people from purchasing a hybrid vehicle include paying premiums to recharge car batteries and disposing of large amounts of hazardous waste. Hence, the options that apply are B and C.

Explanation:Hybrid vehicles are considered to be more energy-efficient and eco-friendly. They have a gas engine that is integrated with an electric motor and a battery pack. The motor assists the engine while driving, and also charges the battery pack which can be charged via regenerative braking.The benefits of owning a hybrid vehicle are that they have lower fuel consumption, which means they emit fewer greenhouse gases. It also means they are cheaper to run because you spend less on fuel.

However, there are a few drawbacks to owning a hybrid vehicle. For instance, the battery in a hybrid vehicle requires periodic recharging, which can be expensive depending on your location and time of the day, and this may discourage some people from purchasing a hybrid vehicle. Also, disposing of large amounts of hazardous waste such as battery waste is another challenge faced by hybrid vehicle owners which may also discourage some people from purchasing a hybrid vehicle.

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Study teams may use incentives for study participation; however, careful consideration should be given to avoid ___________.A. InducementB. RewardsC. CoercionD. Free medical careE. A and CF. B and D

Answers

Study teams may use incentives for study participation; however, careful consideration should be given to avoid A. Inducement.

An inducement is an act of persuading or influencing someone to do something that they might not usually do. In some situations, the act of encouraging someone to participate in a study may create the impression that participants are being induced rather than being motivated by their own interests. Consequently, careful consideration should be given to avoid inducement or other coercive measures when designing study participation incentives.To ensure that the participants are genuinely interested in the research, study teams may offer modest incentives for study participation, such as small gifts or token payments. However, incentives should not be excessive or considered coercion since it may create the impression that the participants are not genuinely interested in the research, but rather motivated by the incentives offered.

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FILL THE BLANK.
"What is the saturation mixing ratio at
7.2oC?
What is the saturation mixing ratio at
4.4oC?
What is the approximate mixing ratio
at 5oC? _________
How many grams of water vapor will
have to condense t"

Answers

Given that the saturation mixing ratio at 7.2oC and 4.4oC are 6.6 g/kg and 3.8 g/kg respectively. The approximate mixing ratio at 5oC lies between the two values found above (i.e. between 3.8 g/kg and 6.6 g/kg).

We have to determine the approximate mixing ratio at 5oC and how many grams of water vapor will have to condense. Here's how to solve the problem:

Since saturation mixing ratio decreases with decreasing temperature, we know that the approximate mixing ratio at 5oC will be less than the saturation mixing ratio at 7.2oC, but greater than the saturation mixing ratio at 4.4oC. Therefore, the approximate mixing ratio at 5oC lies between the two values found above (i.e. between 3.8 g/kg and 6.6 g/kg).

Now, to determine how many grams of water vapor will have to condense, we need to know the actual mixing ratio.

Let's assume that the actual mixing ratio is 4 g/kg. We know that the saturation mixing ratio at 5oC is less than the actual mixing ratio. This means that some of the water vapor will have to condense to bring the air to saturation. The amount of water vapor that needs to condense can be found by taking the difference between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio at 5oC:

Saturation mixing ratio at 5oC is approximately 5 g/kg (between 3.8 g/kg and 6.6 g/kg).

Difference between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio = 4 g/kg - 5 g/kg = -1 g/kg.

This means that 1 g of water vapor per kg of air needs to condense.

To find the total amount of water that needs to condense, we need to know how many kg of air are involved.

Let's assume that there are 1000 kg of air. Then the total amount of water that needs to condense will be:

1 g/kg x 1000 kg = 1000 g = 1 kg.

Therefore, if the actual mixing ratio is 4 g/kg, then 1 kg of water will need to condense to bring the air to saturation.

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not all intercellular signals require transduction. which one of the following signals would be processed without transduction?
A lipid-soluble signal.

Answers

Not all intercellular signals require transduction, and one such signal that can be processed without transduction is the direct physical contact between cells. When cells come into direct contact, they can exchange information and communicate through cell-to-cell interactions without the need for signal transduction pathways.

Cellular interactions involving direct contact play a significant role in various biological processes. For example, during development, cell adhesion molecules on the surface of cells facilitate cell-cell recognition and binding, allowing cells to adhere to each other and form tissues and organs. Similarly, immune cells can recognize foreign pathogens through direct contact and initiate immune responses. Unlike other signaling mechanisms that involve the conversion of an extracellular signal into an intracellular one through signal transduction pathways, direct cell contact enables immediate and precise communication between neighboring cells. It bypasses the need for extracellular signaling molecules and transduction processes, allowing for rapid response and coordination of cellular activities. Understanding the different modes of intercellular communication, including both transduction-dependent and direct contact signaling, provides insights into the complexity and versatility of cellular communication networks. Further exploration of these signaling mechanisms can contribute to our knowledge of various physiological and pathological processes.

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Set up the integral for the area of the surface generated by revolving f(x)=2x^2+5x an [2.4] about the y-axis. Do not evaluate the integral. a comma separated values (csv) file is a simple text-based file format that uses commas to separate _____. what are the main reasons the cockpit crew allowed the plane to run out of fuel? what non-zero integer must be placed in the square so that the simplified product of these two binomials is a binomial: $(3x 2)(12x-\box )$? Consider 17-bit floating point representation like IEEE 754 with 5 bits for the exponent and the bias as 15. Which of the following expression would cause underflow?A. 58.971 x 2B. 2.640625+0 - [infinity]C. 2-+22.444D.-21.018 x 2 rank 13E. None of the above a. Pitcher Inc. has issued the following 2 bonds with a face value of $1,000. Bond Years to Maturity Coupon rate Coupon frequency A 11 years 10% Semi-annual 11 years 3% Semi-annual Given the market rate of interest is 7% 1. What is the price of bond A? (2.5 marks) 2. What is the price of bond B? (2.5 marks) 3. Which bond's price is more sensitive to the changes in interest rate? Explain. (2 marks) b. Why does the default risk premium vary over the business cycle? (3 marks) BO Barnacle Industries was awarded a patent over 15 years ago for a unique industrial strength cleaner that removes barnacles and other particles from the hulls of ships. Thanks to its monopoly position, Barnacle has earned more than $160 million over the past decade. Its customers-spanning the gamut from cruise lines to freighters-use the product because it reduces their fuel bills. The annual (inverse) demand function for Barnacle's product is given by P-450 - 0.0003Q, and Barnacle's cost function is given by q) = 280Q. Thanks to subsidies stemming from an energy bill passed by Congress nearly two decades ago, Barnacle does not have any fixed costs: The federal government essentially pays for the plant and capital equipment required to make this energy-saving product. 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Each can choose whether to contribute $300 to the water fountain or to keep that $300 for a cell phone. Since a water fountain is a public good, both Susan and Becky will benefit from any contributions made by the other person. Specifically, every dollar that elther one of them contributes will bring each of them $0.90 of benefit. For example, if both Susan and Becky choose to contribute, then a total of 5600 would be contributed to the water fountain. So, Susan and Becky would each receive $540 of benefit from the water fountain, and their combined benefit would be $1,080. This is shown in the upper left cell of the first table. Since a cell phone is a private good, If Susan chooses to spend $300 on a cell phone, Susan would get $300 of benefit from the cell phone and Becky wouldn't receive any benefit from Susan's choice. If Susan still spends $300 on a cell phone and Becky chooses to contribute $300 to the water fountain, Susan would still receive the $270 of benefit from Becky's generosity. In other words, If Susan decides to keep the $300 for a cell phone and Becky decides to contribute the $300 to the public project, then Susan would receive a total benefit of $300 + $270 = $570, Becky would receive a total benefit of $270, and their combined benefit would be s840. This is shown in the lower left cell of the first table. Complete the following table, which shows the combined benefits of Susan and Becky as previously described. Becky Doesn't contribute S Contributes $1,000 $840 Contributes Doesn't contribute Susan of the four cells of the table, which gives the greatest combined benefits to Susan and Becky? 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They were her numbers, after all."Girls don't go to the meetings," Katherine's male colleagues told her.Which statements best summarize the excerpt? Katherine Goble became more dedicated to her job as the work intensified. She asked to go to the editorial meetings so she could better understand what happened in them, but she was told that girls were not allowed to attend the meetings. Katherine Goble became more determined to ask for a larger role as the scope of the work grew.Unsatisfied with summaries of the analysis that took place in the meetings, she asked why she could not go to the editorial meetings and was told that girls could not attend. Katherine Goble became upset that she was not allowed to attend editorial meetings as her work became more involved. When she asked why she could not attend the meetings, she was given an unfair answer that upset her. 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The company, with over $13.5 billion in annual sales worldwide, partially finances its operation through the issuance of debt. At the beginning of its 2015 fiscal year, it had $6.5 billion in total debt. At the end of fiscal year 2015, its total debt had increased to $6.6 billion. Its fiscal 2015 interest expense was $227 million, and its assumed statutory tax rate was 37%. Kellogg has an estimated market beta of 0.60. Assume that the expected risk-free rate is 2.5% and the expected market premium is 5%.Kelloggs stock closed at $76.38 on December 31, 2015. On that same date, the company had 420,315,589 shares issued, of which 70,291,514 shares were in treasury.a. What is Kelloggs total market capitalization as of December 31, 2015?Enter answer in billions, rounding to one decimal place.$AnswerCorrectMark 1.00 out of 1.00billionb. Compute Kelloggs WACC.Use your rounded answer above for computation.Round answer to one decimal place (ex: 0.0245 = 2.5%). 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The bond interest is paid semiannually on June 30 and December 31 every yea how does the author use the allusion to sherlock holmes in the passage? Which of the following actions are grounds for disciplinary action by the Board?(a) Aiding and abetting an unlicensed person, who does not qualify for an exemption, in the practice of engineering(b) Using the title "Aerospace Engineer" when not licensed in California or in another state(c) Failure to appear for a scheduled examination at the appropriate examination site(d) Failure to renew licensure when not practicing in California Crane Industries expects credit sales for January, February, and March to be $281.600, $332,800, and $384.000, respectively. It is expected that 75% of the sales will be collected in the month of sale