Identity what type of price discrimination, if any, is described in each scenario.
a. Art's Mac-n-Cheese sells for $0.99 at the Piggly Wiggly, but Bulky Warehouse sells a package of 12 boxes for $10.
O Perfect price discrimination
O Second-degree price discrimination
OThird-degree price discrimination
O No price discrimination

b. Pandy Jewelry charges each customer the maximum he or she is willing to pay for a particular piece of jewelry.
O Perfect price discrimination
O Second-order price discrimination
O Third-order price discrimination
O No price discrimination

Answers

Answer 1

a. The type of price discrimination described in the scenario is third-degree price discrimination.

b . The type of price discrimination that is described in the scenario is perfect price discrimination

Third-degree price discrimination occurs when consumers are grouped based on their price sensitivity. Third-degree price discrimination happens when the seller offers different prices to different groups of consumers. These groups are defined based on some objective characteristics such as age, gender, income level, etc.

.b. The type of price discrimination that is described in the scenario is perfect price discrimination Perfect price discrimination occurs when the seller is aware of the consumer's willingness to pay and can charge that maximum price. In this case, Pandy Jewelry charges each customer the maximum he or she is willing to pay for a particular piece of jewelry, so the price discrimination described in the scenario is perfect price discrimination.

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Related Questions

Sherrill Winery sells two vintages of wine. The Albertson wine sells for $30 a bottle and annually they sell 13,000 bottles. The Bumphrey wine sells for $90 a bottle, but they only sell 3,000 bottles per year.

The company is considering offering a new, mid-priced wine called Calvinhall. They think they can sell this wine at $60 a bottle, and anticipate they can sell 2,000 bottles per year. However, they also think it will reduce annual sales of Albertson by 1,000 bottles per year and reduce sales of Bumphrey by 500 bottles per year.

When estimate the cash flows for the Calvinhall wine, what amount should they use for the annual sales?

Multiple Choice

$45,000

$195,000

$120,000

$705,000

$660,000

Answers

The amount that should be used for the annual sales for the Calvin hall wine can be calculated as follows: Total annual revenue from Albertson wine = $30 x 13,000 = $390,000Total annual revenue from Bumphrey wine = $90 x 3,000 = $270,000Total annual revenue from Calvin hall wine = $60 x 2,000 = $120,000.

Reduction in annual sales of Albertson wine due to Calvin hall = 1,000 bottles Annual revenue lost due to reduction in sales of Albertson wine = 1,000 x $30 = $30,000Reduction in annual sales of Bumphrey wine due to Calvin hall = 500 bottles Annual revenue lost due to reduction in sales of Bumphrey wine = 500 x $90 = $45,000Therefore, the total estimated annual sales of Calvin hall wine = Total annual revenue from Calvin hall wine .

Annual revenue lost due to reduction in sales of Albertson wine - Annual revenue lost due to reduction in sales of Bumphrey wine= $120,000 - $30,000 - $45,000= $45,000Hence, the correct option is: $45,000. The amount that should be used for the annual sales for the Calvin hall wine can be calculated as follows: Total annual revenue from Albertson wine = $30 x 13,000 = $390,000Total annual revenue from Bumphrey wine = $90 x 3,000 = $270,000Total annual revenue from Calvin hall wine = $60 x 2,000 = $120,000.

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A project has the following cash flows. What is the payback period?
Year Cash Flow
0 -$ 10.000
1 1.800
2 3.600
3 5.000
4 6.000

a. 3.03 years
b. 2.83 years
c. 2.92 years
d. 2.38 years
e. 2.75 years

Answers

Payback period refers to the time it takes for a project to recoup its initial investment costs. It is a significant aspect of any project assessment because it gives you an idea of how long it will take to recover your initial investment.

The formula for calculating payback period is as follows:Payback period = Investment required / Annual cash inflowsFor this problem, we are given the following cash flows:Year 1: $4Year 2: $6,000Year 3: $2.92Year 4: $2.75To find the payback period, we need to calculate the cumulative cash inflows for each year and find the year where the cumulative cash inflows equal the initial investment of the project, which is $10,000.Year 1: $4Cumulative cash inflows after year 1 = $4Year 2: $6,000Cumulative cash inflows after year 2 = $6,004Year 3: $2.92Cumulative cash inflows after year 3 = $6,006.92Year 4: $2.75Cumulative cash inflows after year 4 = $6,009.67Since the cumulative cash inflows have exceeded the initial investment of $10,000 in year 4, the payback period is between year 3 and year 4.To find the exact payback period, we can use linear interpolation.Payback period = Year before investment was recovered + (Unrecovered cost at the start of the year / Cash flow during the year)Payback period = 3 + [(10,000 - 6,006.92) / 2.75]Payback period = 3.82 yearsTherefore, the payback period for the project is approximately 3.82 years.

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on the far right side of the as curve, the economy is producing ________ potential, and on the far left of the curve, it is producing ________ potential.
A) at; below
B) below; above
C) above; below

Answers

The correct answer is C) above; below.

On the far right side of the AS (Aggregate Supply) curve, the economy is producing above its potential. This means that it is operating at a level of output that exceeds its long-run sustainable capacity. This could be due to factors such as increased demand, temporary supply shocks, or inefficient resource allocation.

On the far left side of the AS curve, the economy is producing below its potential. This indicates that it is operating at a level of output that is below its long-run sustainable capacity. This could be caused by factors such as a decrease in aggregate demand, structural issues, or supply constraints.

Therefore, option C) above; below accurately describes the production levels in relation to potential on the different ends of the AS curve.

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Consider the market for corn. Indicate whether each of the following events will cause a shift in the demand curve or a movement along the curve. If it will cause a shift, specify the direction. a. A drought hits corn-growing regions, cutting the supply of corn: [Movement lon b. The government announces a new subsidy for biofuels made from corn: Rightward shift c. A global recession reduces the incomes of consumers in poor countries, who rely on corn as a staple food (assuming corn is a normal good): Leftward shift。 d. A new hybrid variety of corn seed causes a 15 percent increase in the yield of corn per acre. Movement alon e. An advertising campaign by the beef producers' association highlights the health benefits of corn fed beef Rightward shift

Answers

a. Movement along the curve; b. Rightward shift in the demand curve; c. Leftward shift in the demand curve; d. Movement along the curve; e. Rightward shift in the demand curve.

Let's analyze each event and determine whether it causes a shift in the demand curve or a movement along the curve in the market for corn:

a. A drought hits corn-growing regions, cutting the supply of corn: This event affects the supply of corn, not the demand. It leads to a decrease in the quantity supplied and causes a movement along the demand curve, resulting in a higher price for corn and a lower quantity demanded.

b. The government announces a new subsidy for biofuels made from corn: This event affects the demand for corn. The subsidy encourages the production and consumption of biofuels made from corn, increasing the demand for corn. It causes a rightward shift in the demand curve, leading to a higher price and quantity of corn.

c. A global recession reduces the incomes of consumers in poor countries, who rely on corn as a staple food (assuming corn is a normal good): This event affects the demand for corn. The decrease in consumer incomes leads to a decrease in the demand for corn as it is a normal good. It causes a leftward shift in the demand curve, resulting in a lower price and quantity of corn.

d. A new hybrid variety of corn seed causes a 15 percent increase in the yield of corn per acre: This event affects the supply of corn. The increase in yield per acre leads to a higher quantity supplied at each price level, causing a movement along the demand curve.

e. An advertising campaign by the beef producers' association highlights the health benefits of corn-fed beef: This event affects the demand for corn. The advertising campaign promotes the consumption of corn-fed beef, increasing the demand for corn. It causes a rightward shift in the demand curve, leading to a higher price and quantity of corn.

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Which of the following should Mandy do during a meeting of the project team and stakeholders to avoid confusing the stakeholders with the project's technical aspects?
a. Provide a meeting agenda for everyone to follow
b. Take extra time to verbally describe the critical processes
c. Explain terms and acronyms used by the team
d. Provide written reports for them to refer to

Answers

During a meeting of the project team and stakeholders to avoid confusing the stakeholders with the project's technical aspects, the most efficient option is to explain terms and acronyms used by the team. The correct answer is C.

It is always essential to ensure that meetings are well organized and attended. This is why the organizer should plan and provide an agenda for everyone to follow. An agenda outlines the items that will be covered and helps to keep the meeting on track. It is also vital to provide written reports for the attendees to refer to if necessary. These reports can be used as references and to keep attendees informed about the project's progress.However, for the stakeholders who may not be familiar with technical terms and acronyms used by the team, providing an explanation is crucial. The project manager or the team leader should take the time to explain what the technical terms and acronyms mean in a language that the stakeholders can understand. Doing this will avoid confusing the stakeholders, and it helps them to participate in the meeting effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Explain terms and acronyms used by the teamIn summary, the project leader should provide an agenda for the meeting, take extra time to verbally describe the critical processes, provide written reports for the attendees to refer to, and explain terms and acronyms used by the team to avoid confusing the stakeholders.

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The current price of a non-dividend-paying stock is $62.98 and you expect the stock price to either go up by a factor of 1.175 or down by a factor of 0.856 each period for 2 periods over the next 0.2 years. Each period is 0.1 years long.

A European put option on the stock expires in 0.2 years. Its strike price is $63. The risk-free rate is 3% (annual, continuously compounded).

What is the current value of the option?

Answers

The current value of the option cannot be determined without knowing the volatility (σ) of the stock.

How to calculate the current value of the European put option?

To calculate the current value of the European put option, we can use the Black-Scholes formula. The formula is as follows:

P = X * e[tex]^(-rT)[/tex] * N(-d2) - S * N(-d1)

Where:

P = Current value of the put option

X = Strike price of the option

r = Risk-free interest rate

T = Time to expiration (in years)

S = Current price of the stock

N() = Cumulative standard normal distribution

d1 = (ln(S/X) + (r + σ[tex]^2/2[/tex]) * T) / (σ * sqrt(T))

d2 = d1 - σ * sqrt(T)

Given values:

S = $62.98

X = $63

r = 3% (converted to decimal: 0.03)

T = 0.2 years

σ = ln(1.175 / 0.856) / (2 * sqrt(0.1))  (volatility)

Now, let's calculate the values for d1, d2, and the current value of the option (P).

d1 = (ln(62.98/63) + (0.03 + (σ[tex]^2/2[/tex])) * 0.2) / (σ * sqrt(0.2))

d2 = d1 - σ * sqrt(0.2)

Using the calculated values for d1 and d2, we can determine P:

P = 63 * e[tex]^(-0.03 * 0.2)[/tex] * N(-d2) - 62.98 * N(-d1)

By plugging in the values and solving the equation, we can determine the current value of the European put option.

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Employee satisfaction would be an example of measuring which perspective of the balanced scorecard? A) Financial B) Customer C) Learning and growth D) Internal business

Answers

An indicator of the internal business perspective of the balanced scorecard is employee satisfaction. The balanced scorecard method would incorporate cost-cutting strategies from the perspective of the client. So, C is the best choice.

The four performance measurement axes in a balanced scorecard are customer, internal process, financial, and learning and growth. The "number of new customers" for a specific product would be a performance indicator of the customer perspective.A classic balanced scorecard has four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth.

An organization's capacity to satisfy customer demands and expectations through internal processes, products, and services is measured from the internal process perspective. The internal process perspective can cover everything from customer service and marketing to manufacturing, marketing, and sales operations.

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suppose that initially decision alternative b is selected and then g happened. based on the maximum expected value approach, what should be the next decision strategy?

Answers

Based on the maximum expected value approach, the next decision strategy should be to continue selecting decision alternative b.

The maximum expected value approach is a decision-making strategy that involves selecting the alternative with the highest expected value. In this case, decision alternative b was initially selected, and an event g occurred. To determine the next decision strategy, we need to consider the expected values associated with each alternative in light of the new information.

If the maximum expected value is still associated with decision alternative b even after event g, then the next decision strategy would be to continue selecting decision alternative b. This implies that the expected value of alternative b, considering the occurrence of event g, is still higher than the expected values of other alternatives.

However, without further information on the expected values of the decision alternatives and the impact of event g, it is difficult to provide a more specific recommendation. The maximum expected value approach requires a comprehensive analysis of the expected values and probabilities associated with each decision alternative and event to make an informed decision strategy.

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why is the cash at bank account never adjusted?

Answers

The cash at bank account is a general ledger account that is used to keep track of the cash balance in a company's bank account. When a company makes a deposit or withdraws cash from its bank account.

The cash at bank account is updated to reflect the change in the account balance. However, the cash at bank account is never adjusted because it is a real account. Real accounts are accounts that track the changes in a company's assets, liabilities, and equity over time.

They are not closed at the end of an accounting period like nominal accounts. Therefore, their balances are not adjusted at the end of an accounting period.
Nominal accounts, on the other hand, are accounts that track the changes in a company's revenues, expenses, and gains or losses over time. These accounts are closed at the end of an accounting period, and their balances are transferred to the company's retained earnings account.
In conclusion, the cash at bank account is never adjusted because it is a real account that tracks the changes in a company's cash balance over time. The balances in real accounts are not adjusted at the end of an accounting period.

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P12-7A. Statement of Cash Flows (Direct Method) Refer to the data given for the North Company in Problem P12-2A. Required Calculate the change in cash that occurred during 2019. Prepare a statement of cash flows using the direct method. a. b. LO4 (APF 12A X a. Cash, December 31, 2019 Cash, December 31, 2018 Cash increase during 2019 Supporting computations: Cash received from customers: Given in Data Set on the balance sheets Insert lines as necessary $770,000 sales + $7,000 A/R decrease = 777,000 Cash paid for merchandise purchased: Cash paid to employees: SSS $ $ Example Cash paid for advertising: Cash paid for interest: Sale of land: Sheet2 Purchase of equipment: Issuance of bonds payable: Sheet3 Sheet4 Sheet5 I Purchase of treasury stock: Other Analysis Accumulated depreciation increased by $24,000, which is the amount of depreciation expense Common stock account balance did not change Retained earnings decreased by $25,000, which is the amount of net loss. I ett Sheet2 North Company Cash flow from operating activities Cash received from customers Statement of Cash Flows For Year Ended December 31, 2019 Cash paid for merchandise purchased Cash paid to employees Cash paid for advertising Cash paid for interest Cash provided by operating activities Cash flow from investing activities Sale of land Purchase of equipment Cash used by investing activities Sheet3 Cash flow from financing activities Sheets + Sheet4 I fx B D E Cash provided by operating activities Cash flow from investing activities Sale of land Purchase of equipment Cash used by investing activities Cash flow from financing activities Issuance of bonds payable Purchase of treasury stock Cash provided by financing activities Net increase in cash Cash at beginning of year Cash at end of year F G H IS J

Answers

The Cash flow that occurred during 2019 for the North Company was an increase of $753,000, driven by cash received from customers and various cash outflows for expenses.

In 2019, the North Company experienced a net increase in cash of $753,000. This increase was primarily due to the cash received from customers, which totaled $777,000. This amount was calculated by adding the sales of $770,000 and the decrease in accounts receivable of $7,000. It indicates that the company collected more cash from customers than it recognized as revenue during the year.

On the other hand, the company had various cash outflows during the year. These included cash paid for merchandise purchased, cash paid to employees, cash paid for advertising, and cash paid for interest. However, the problem does not provide specific amounts for these expenses, so we cannot determine the exact impact on cash.

Overall, the net effect of the cash inflows from customers and the cash outflows for expenses resulted in a net increase in cash of $753,000 for the North Company during 2019.

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You are to present a proposed capital investment project to your board of directors. The project has a NPV of $12,000 and an IRR of 12%. The firm's required return is 10%. You are to convey your proposal to the board in a single paragraph. Write that paragraph here. Remember, your job is to convince the board to either accept or reject the project, whichever you feel is appropriate given this information. (30Marks, using your critical thinking and list down 3 discussion points in a paragraph within 300 words)

Answers

I strongly recommend that the board accept this proposal and invest in this project.List of 3 discussion points:1. What is the impact of accepting the investment project on the company's cash flow and financial statements?2. How long will it take for the company to recover the initial investment cost and start generating profits?3. Are there any potential risks associated with this investment project, and how can we mitigate them?

As a financial analyst, I am excited to present to the board of directors our proposed capital investment project that has a Net Present Value (NPV) of $12,000 and an Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of 12%. The company's required rate of return is 10%. The NPV of the project is the difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows, discounted at the required rate of return.The positive NPV of $12,000 indicates that the proposed investment will add value to the company. The IRR of 12% also shows that this investment project will generate a return higher than the required rate of return of 10%. Therefore, this investment project seems to be a profitable and wise choice for our company. The acceptance of this proposal will not only generate returns for the company but also strengthen its position in the market. The company will be able to attract new customers and retain existing ones with the introduction of this project. It will also be able to diversify its product portfolio, resulting in higher revenue streams. Thus, I strongly recommend that the board accept this proposal and invest in this project.List of 3 discussion points:1. What is the impact of accepting the investment project on the company's cash flow and financial statements?2. How long will it take for the company to recover the initial investment cost and start generating profits?3. Are there any potential risks associated with this investment project, and how can we mitigate them?

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The conditions of a credit card are as follows: annual interest rate of 55.4%, minimum payment of 8.97% and previous balance method (previous balance). Regina George has this type of credit card. At the beginning of the month, she had a balance of $63,360.4. She made a credit card payment on the 15th for $ 17,236 and made a purchase on the 22nd for $12,130 Assuming that Regina only paid the minimum amount each month, how much money would Regina pay in total if she paid this way? (answer in money, do not put the sign $, 2 decimal places)

Answers

New balance after minimum payment $42,190.94. She has to do the same for other months if she wants to know how much money she would pay in total if she paid only the minimum amount each month.

The credit card condition includes an annual interest rate of 55.4%, minimum payment of 8.97% and previous balance method (previous balance).

Regina George made a credit card payment on the 15th for $ 17,236 and made a purchase on the 22nd for $12,130. She started with a balance of $63,360.

$63,360.4 − $17,236

= $46,124.

Interest on the remaining balance = (55.4 ÷ 12) ÷ 100 × $46,124.4

= $225.36.

New balance including interest = $46,124.4 + $225.36

= $46,349.76

Minimum payment due = 8.97 ÷ 100 × $46,349.76

= $4,158.82

New balance after minimum payment = $46,349.76 − $4,158.82

= $42,190.94

The above calculation is done for one month. She has to do the same for other months if she wants to know how much money she would pay in total if she paid only the minimum amount each month.

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2. Problem 17.02 (AFN Equation) eBook Carlsbad Corporation's sales are expected to increase from $5 million in 2021 to $6 million in 2022, or by 20%. Its assets totaled $2 million at the end of 2021.

Answers

A negative AFN means that the company has excess funds to finance the projected increase in sales and assets without any external financing. The company does not need any additional financing in 2022.

AFN (Additional Funds Needed) Equation:
AFN = Projected Increase in Assets – Projected Increase in Liabilities – Increase in Retained Earnings
Calculation of the increase in assets from 2021 to 2022 can be calculated as:
Increase in assets = 20% × $2 million = $400,000

Using the AFN equation, the calculations for the increase in liabilities and increase in retained earnings are:
Increase in liabilities = (2022 Sales × Liabilities-to-Sales Ratio) – (2021 Sales × Liabilities-to-Sales Ratio)
Increase in retained earnings = (2022 Net Income × Retention Ratio) – (2021 Net Income × Retention Ratio)
We are given that sales are expected to increase from $5 million in 2021 to $6 million in 2022, or by 20%.

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Power Corporation owns 75 percent of Surge Company’s stock; no intercompany purchases or sales were made in 20X4. For the year, Power and Surge reported sales of $330,000 and $230,000 and cost of goods sold of $170,000 and $109,250, respectively. Power’s inventory increased by $32,000, but Surge’s decreased by $13,000. Power’s accounts receivable increased by $16,000 and its accounts payable decreased by $11,000 during 20X4. Surge’s accounts receivable decreased by $9,000 and its accounts payable increased by $6,000.
Required: Assuming there were no other cash flows from operations, using the direct method of computing cash flows from operating activities, compute the following:
a) Cash received from customers
b) Cash payments to suppliers
c) Cash flows from operating activities

Answers

The cash flows from operating activities are:$154,000 for Power Corporation$118,750 for Surge Company.

a) Cash received from customers using the direct method of computing cash flows from operating activities:

The formula to calculate the cash received from customers using the direct method is:

Cash received from customers = Sales + decrease in accounts receivable+ increase in accounts payable.

Cash received from Power Corporation = $330,000 + (-$16,000) - $11,000 = $303,000

Cash received from Surge Company = $230,000 - (-$9,000) + $6,000 = $235,000

b) Cash payments to suppliers using the direct method of computing cash flows from operating activities:

The formula to calculate the cash payments to suppliers using the direct method is:

Cash payments to suppliers = cost of goods sold + increase in inventory - decrease in accounts payable.

Cash payments made by Power Corporation = $170,000 - $32,000 + $11,000 = $149,000

Cash payments made by Surge Company = $109,250 + $13,000 - $6,000 = $116,250

c) Cash flows from operating activities using the direct method:

To calculate the cash flows from operating activities, we need to subtract the cash payments to suppliers from the cash received from customers. Thus,

Cash flows from operating activities = cash received from customers - cash payments to suppliers

Cash flows from operating activities of Power Corporation = $303,000 - $149,000 = $154,000

Cash flows from operating activities of Surge Company = $235,000 - $116,250 = $118,750

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For the year ended 30 June 2022, the following information is available for X-ray Ltd: 2022 2021 Dividend receivable 5,200 4,400 Land 240,000 100,000 Buildings 1,200,000 500,000 Accumulated depreciati

Answers

Based on the information provided for X-ray Ltd for the year ended 30 June 2022, the following information is available: 2022 2021 Dividend receivable 5,200 4,400 Land 240,000 100,000 Buildings 1,200,000 500,000 Accumulated depreciation.

To complete the statement, the term "on buildings" must be added after the term "Accumulated depreciation". This would indicate the depreciation accumulated on buildings for the year ended June 30, 2022. Therefore, the complete statement would be

For the year ended 30 June 2022, the following information is available for X-ray Ltd: 2022 2021 Dividend receivable 5,200 4,400 Land 240,000 100,000 Buildings 1,200,000 500,000 Accumulated depreciation on buildings

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For the year ended 30 June 2022, the following information is available for X-ray Ltd: 2022 2021 Dividend receivable 5,200 4,400 Land 240,000 100,000 Buildings 1,200,000 500,000 Accumulated depreciation

please be as descriptive as possible
M Consider the following game with nature 6, X (4) High (1/2) Low (1/2) X3, 3 Y 10,7 X 3,0 L' M Y 8, 4 Does this game have any separating perfect Bayesian equilibrium? Show your analysis and, if there

Answers

Yes, the game has a separating perfect Bayesian equilibrium: Nature chooses High, X plays 4, and Y plays M; Nature chooses Low, X plays 3, and Y plays L'.

To decide whether this game has any isolating wonderful Bayesian balance (PBE), we really want to investigate the methodologies and convictions of the players at every choice hub.

In this game, there are three players: Nature (N), Player X, and Player Y. Nature moves first and picks between High (H) and Low (L) with equivalent likelihood.

Then, Player X notices Nature's decision and chooses either activity 4 or activity 3. At last, Player Y picks either activity M or activity L' in view of Player X's picked activity.

For an isolating PBE, every player's technique should be a best reaction to their convictions, and their convictions should be steady with the noticed activities.

In the event that Nature picks High, Player X's best reaction is activity 4, as it yields a higher result. Player Y, noticing activity 4, plays M as it prompts a higher result.

Assuming Nature picks Low, Player X's best reaction is activity 3. Player Y, noticing activity 3, plays L' to augment their result.

In this way, we have an isolating PBE: Nature picks High, Player X plays activity 4, and Player Y plays activity M; and Nature picks Low, Player X plays activity 3, and Player Y plays activity L'.

All in all, this game has an isolating wonderful Bayesian balance, as portrayed previously.

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The complete question is:

M Consider the following game with nature 6, X (4) High (1/2) Low (1/2) X3, 3 Y 10,7 X 3,0 L' M Y 8, 4 Does this game have any separating perfect Bayesian equilibrium? Show your analysis and, if there is such an equilibrium, report it (only one is required). Consider the following simplified view of a jury weighing evidence (treat the jury as a single decision maker). A defendant in a court case is accused of committing a crime. Assume there is potentially one piece of relevant evidence, which is denoted by d. If the defendant is guilty, dis realized with probability p=1/8. If the defendant is innocent, dis realized with probability p= 1/2. Assume that the jury's prior probability that the defendant is innocent is 5/8. That is, before observing anything pertaining to the evidence realization, the jury assigns a prior probability of 5/8 to the defendant being innocent. Assume that the jury forms an updated belief about the defendant's innocence/guilt using Bayes' rule. Assume that if d is realized, the defendant chooses whether to disclose it. Suppose that the jury chooses an action a € [0, 1] and has a payoff given by u=-la-8), where 8-1f the defendant is actually innocent and 60 if the defendant is actually guilty. Note that this payoff function implies that the jury wishes to match its action a to its posterior (or updated) belief that the defendant is innocent. Further, assume that the defendant's payoff is increasing in a so the defendant prefers that the jury have a higher posterior to a lower one. (1-P) 01-

The common stock of Scotty Inc. has a required return of 14.7%. The return on the market portfolio is expected to be 10.8% and the T-Bill rate is 3.8%. What is Scotty's beta?

1.33

1.56

1.23

1.41

.92

Answers

To calculate Scotty Inc.'s beta, we need to determine the relationship between the stock's returns and the market returns. Beta measures the sensitivity of a stock's returns to the overall market returns. A beta greater than 1 indicates that the stock is more volatile than the market, while a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility.

The formula to calculate beta is:

Beta = (Return on Stock - Risk-Free Rate) / (Return on Market - Risk-Free Rate)

Given that the required return on Scotty Inc.'s common stock is 14.7%, the return on the market portfolio is 10.8%, and the T-Bill rate (risk-free rate) is 3.8%, we can substitute these values into the formula:

Beta = (14.7% - 3.8%) / (10.8% - 3.8%)

Beta = 10.9% / 7%

Beta ≈ 1.56

Therefore, Scotty Inc.'s beta is approximately 1.56.

This indicates that Scotty's stock is expected to be 56% more volatile than the overall market. It implies that the stock's returns are likely to move in a larger proportion relative to the market returns. Investors should consider this higher risk when evaluating their investment decisions in Scotty Inc.'s stock.

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Please explain the difference between a quantitative and qualitative research. Please also explain the differences between the four types of quantitative research design: descriptive, correlational, quasi-experimental and experimental.

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Quantitative research and qualitative research are two distinct approaches in research methodology.

Quantitative research is primarily concerned with collecting and analyzing numerical data to uncover patterns, relationships, and trends. It emphasizes objective measurement, statistical analysis, and the use of structured surveys, questionnaires, or experiments. The goal is to draw generalizable conclusions and make predictions based on the data. It often involves large sample sizes and employs statistical techniques to analyze data.

Qualitative research, on the other hand, focuses on exploring subjective experiences, meanings, and interpretations. It aims to gain an in-depth understanding of individuals' perspectives and social phenomena through methods such as interviews, observations, and analysis of textual or visual data. It relies on open-ended questions, allows for flexibility in data collection, and emphasizes context and rich descriptions. The findings are typically presented in narrative or thematic form.

Within quantitative research, there are four main types of research designs:

Descriptive research: This design aims to describe and document characteristics, behaviors, or phenomena. It focuses on presenting a clear picture of a particular population or situation, without making causal inferences.

Correlational research: This design investigates the relationship between two or more variables. It examines the extent to which changes in one variable are associated with changes in another variable. However, it does not establish causality.

Quasi-experimental research: This design resembles experimental research but lacks full control over the research environment. It involves the manipulation of an independent variable to observe its effect on a dependent variable, but participants are not randomly assigned to groups.

Experimental research: This design involves the random assignment of participants into different groups, including a control group, and the manipulation of an independent variable to measure its impact on a dependent variable. It aims to establish cause-and-effect relationships between variables.

These different quantitative research designs serve various purposes and have specific strengths and limitations, allowing researchers to choose the most appropriate design for their research questions and objectives.

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Suppose that the cross-price elasticity between good x and y is 25 and that the price of good y increases. Which of the following statements is true? OA. The Price Consumption Curve (PCC) between the goods is downward sloping. OB. Goods x and y are demand substitutes. OC. Demand for good x increases after the price change O D. Goods x must be a normal good OE. None of the above Colection

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Suppose that the cross-price elasticity between good x and y is -.25 and that the price of good y increases. None of the above is true. Option E is the correct answer.

Demand for product A will decline when the price of good B rises, according to the negative cross-elasticity of demand. This implies that the products A and B are complimentary. The cross-price elasticity of demand quantifies how the amount sought of one product will change in response to a change in its price. Option E is the correct answer.

The value of the cross price elasticity, in contrast to the usually negative price elasticity of demand, may be either negative or positive, and the sign tells us a lot about whether the commodities are complementary or substitutable. The amount of elasticity indicates how complimentary or interchangeable the commodities are.

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The complete question is, "Suppose that the cross-price elasticity between good x and y is -.25 and that the price of good y increases. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The Price Consumption Curve (PCC) between the goods is downward sloping.

B. Goods x and y are demand substitutes.

C. Demand for good x increases after the price change

D. Goods x must be a normal good

E. None of the above"

Suppose a duopoly in a market for a differentiated good. The demands and costs of the two companies, A and B, are given by:
Qa = 200 - 2Pa + Pb
Qb 2002Pb + Pa
CTa = 550 + 46 Qa
CTb = 550 + 46 Qb
Assuming that the two companies choose their price (Bertrand model), what quantity will be produced by firm A?

Answers

In the given scenario, with the Bertrand model, there is no Nash equilibrium. Firm A's quantity produced cannot be determined as there is no unique solution in the differentiated duopoly market.

To determine the quantity produced by firm A in the Bertrand model, we need to find the Nash equilibrium, where both firms simultaneously choose their prices. In this case, we will assume that firm B has already chosen its price (Pb).

Given:

Demand for firm A: Qa = 200 - 2Pa + Pb

Demand for firm B: Qb = 200 - 2Pb + Pa

Cost function for firm A: CTa = 550 + 46Qa

Cost function for firm B: CTb = 550 + 46Qb

In the Bertrand model, each firm chooses the price that maximizes its profit, taking into account the price chosen by the other firm. The firm with the lower price captures the entire market demand.

To find the Nash equilibrium, we equate the marginal cost and marginal revenue for firm A:

MR = MC

The marginal revenue for firm A is the derivative of the demand function with respect to quantity:

MR = d(Qa)/dPa

MR = -2

The marginal cost for firm A is the derivative of the cost function with respect to quantity:

MC  = d(CTa)/dQa

MC = 46

Setting MR equal to MC:

-2 = 46

This equation has no solution, which means there is no cash equilibrium in this scenario. The Bertrand model does not have a unique solution when firms have differentiated products.

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The fixed cost in manufacture is Rs 4 crores , variable cost Rs500 find breaheven point . if item price is rs1100 find profit generated if sales volume is 1,00,000 units

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Break-even point is a point where the company neither makes a profit nor a loss. In this point, the company just reaches the break-even point and beyond this point, the company will start making a profit.

In order to calculate the break-even point, one needs to consider the following formula:

Break-even point (in units) = Fixed cost / Contribution margin per unit Here,

Fixed cost in manufacture = Rs 4 crores

Variable cost = Rs 500

Item price = Rs 1100

Sales volume = 1,00,000 units

Calculation of the contribution margin per unit Contribution margin per unit = Item price - Variable cost Contribution margin per unit = 1100 - 500 = Rs 600

Calculation of the break-even point

Break-even point (in units) = Fixed cost / Contribution margin per unit Break-even point (in units) = 40000000 / 600Break-even point (in units) = 66666.67 units

Therefore, the break-even point is 66666.67 units.

Calculation of the profit generated if sales volume is 1,00,000 units:

Contribution per unit = 1100 - 500 = Rs 600Sales volume = 1,00,000 units

Sales revenue = 1100 × 100000 = Rs 1,10,00,000

Total cost = fixed cost + variable cost

Total cost = 40000000 + (500 × 100000)

Total cost = Rs 90,00,000

Profit = sales revenue - total cost

Profit = 1,10,00,000 - 90,00,000

Profit = Rs 20,00,000

Therefore, the profit generated if the sales volume is 1,00,000 units is Rs 20,00,000.

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david puddy buys a new car stereo in january, 2015 that he installs into his bmw. the stereo was produced in december, 2014.

Answers

The stereo, however, was created in December 2014. This indicates that the stereo was manufactured one month prior to David's purchase. The stereo may not have the most recent technology improvements .

advancements available in newer versions created after December 2014, even if the manufacturing date is not always a problem. However, the precise effects on performance and functionality would rely on the innovatioures developed in ns and featthe field of car stereos at that time.

David Puddy upgrades the car radio of his BMW in January 2015

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Which one of the following is not a good reason for leasing?
Group of answer choices
A. accounting
B. lease contract may reduce certain types of uncertainty
C. leasing can be cheaper than buying an asset

Answers

Accounting is not a good reason for leasing. Option A is the correct answer.

Residential leases are agreements between a landlord and a tenant that define in detail the responsibilities of the two sides, including living expenses pet regulations, and the length of the rent. Option A is the correct answer.

An agreement known as a lease between a tenant and landlord grants the renter the right to occupy a property for a predetermined amount of time, usually a 6- or 12-month renting period. The parties to the lease are bound by a contract between the landlord and renter.

Leases have the potential to lower transaction costs, taxes, and some sorts of uncertainty, which are all good reasons to lease rather than buy. The greatest interests of both parties may be maintained with the assistance of a sturdy, carefully thought-out, and well-drafted lease arrangement since neither of them may change the terms of the contract of rental without the other's authorization in writing.

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Question 6 [2 marks] Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. The duration of this Treasury bond will be higher if its coupon rate is higher. b. We can use the duration of this Treasury bond to measure its price sensitivity. c. The duration of this Treasury bond will increase if the yield rate at purchase is lower. d. The purchase price of this Treasury bond will decrease, if this Treasury bond is subject to a 30% tax on both interest and capital gains.

Answers

The incorrect statement among the given options is:

d. The purchase price of this Treasury bond will decrease if this Treasury bond is subject to a 30% tax on both interest and capital gains.

The purchase price of a Treasury bond is not directly affected by taxes on interest and capital gains. The purchase price of a bond is determined by the prevailing market conditions, such as the demand for bonds, prevailing interest rates, and the bond's coupon rate. Taxes on interest and capital gains affect the after-tax return on the bond, but they do not impact the purchase price.When a bond is subject to taxes, the after-tax yield or return may be lower for investors. However, this does not impact the bond's purchase price. The purchase price of a bond is typically determined based on factors like the bond's face value, coupon rate, prevailing interest rates, and the bond's maturity.

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Firm A and B compete for clients in a market where A starts with
xA = 140 clients and B has xB = 200 clients.
Firm A has a total cost of 410 + 6xA and firm B has
total cost of 240 + 8xB. In this case,

Answers

We can conclude that firm A has a lower total cost than firm B.

In a situation where firm A and B compete for clients in a market where A starts with xA = 140 clients and
B has xB = 200 clients, firm A has a total cost of 410 + 6xA and firm B has a total cost of 240 + 8xB.
Here's what we can infer from these given data.
Profit equation of Firm A:
Let the profit of Firm A be P(A), where
P(A) = Revenue (A) - Total Cost (A)
Revenue (A) = xA p
Let p be the price per client. Therefore,
Revenue (A) = 140p
Total Cost (A) = 410 + 6(140) = 1250
Substituting these values in the profit equation, we get
P(A) = 140p - 1250
Profit equation of Firm B:
Let the profit of Firm B be P(B), where
P(B) = Revenue (B) - Total Cost (B)
Revenue (B) = xB p
Let p be the price per client. Therefore,
Revenue (B) = 200p
Total Cost (B) = 240 + 8(200) = 1840
Substituting these values in the profit equation, we get
P(B) = 200p - 1840
For finding out the market price, we will equate both P(A) and P(B) to get the competitive price.
P(A) = P(B)
140p - 1250 = 200p - 1840
60p = 590
p = 590/60 = 9.8333
Therefore, the market price is $9.83 per client.
Now, let's find out the total cost for both the firms.
Total Cost (A) = 1250
Total Cost (B) = 1840
Therefore, we can conclude that firm A has a lower total cost than firm B.

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the following information relates to the only product sold by mastrolia manufacturing.sales price per unit $ 45variable cost per unit 27fixed costs per year 297,000a. compute the contribution margin ratio and the dollar sales volume required to break even.b. assuming that the company sells 20,000 units during the current year, compute the margin of safety (in dollars).

Answers

(a) The Contribution Margin Ratio is 40% and the Break-Even Sales Volume is  16,500 units.  (b) Assuming that the company sells 20,000 units during the current year, the margin of safety in dollars for the company, based on selling 20,000 units, is $157,500.

a. To compute the contribution margin ratio and the dollar sales volume required to break even, we can use the given information:

Sales price per unit: $45

Variable cost per unit: $27

Fixed costs per year: $297,000

Contribution Margin Ratio:

The contribution margin is calculated by subtracting the variable cost per unit from the sales price per unit. In this case, it would be $45 - $27 = $18 per unit. To find the contribution margin ratio, we divide the contribution margin per unit by the sales price per unit and multiply by 100:

Contribution Margin Ratio = (Contribution Margin per Unit / Sales Price per Unit) * 100

= ($18 / $45) * 100

= 40%

Break-Even Sales Volume:

To calculate the break-even sales volume, we need to find the number of units required to cover the fixed costs. The formula for break-even sales volume is:

Break-Even Sales Volume = Fixed Costs / Contribution Margin per Unit

= $297,000 / $18

= 16,500 units

b. Assuming the company sells 20,000 units during the current year, we can calculate the margin of safety in dollars:

Margin of Safety = (Actual Sales - Break-Even Sales) * Sales Price per Unit

= (20,000 - 16,500) * $45

= 3,500 * $45

= $157,500

Therefore, the margin of safety in dollars for the company, is $157,500.

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Select the correct statement regarding commodity (or excise) taxes. The reduction in consumer and producer surplus associated with a commodity tax is equivalent to the tax revenue collected. The burden of a tax is unrelated to who actually pays money to the government. Regardless of who writes a check to the government, the burden of commodity taxes is shared equally by buyers and sellers. From the perspective of buyers, taxes imposed on firms are preferable to taxes imposed on buyers, because firms ultimately pay a larger share of these types of taxes. Select the correct statement regarding tax wedges. Tax wedges are smaller when commodity taxes are imposed on buyers. The size of the tax wedge is unrelated to elasticity. Tax wedges are larger when commodity taxes are imposed on buyers. Tax wedges are larger when supply is more inelastic than demand. Tax wedges are larger when demand is more inelastic than supply

Answers

The correct answer is Option A. The correct statement regarding commodity (or excise) taxes is The reduction in consumer and producer surplus associated with a commodity tax is equivalent to the tax revenue collected.

The correct answer for tax wedges is Option E. The correct statement regarding tax wedges is Tax wedges are larger when supply is more inelastic than demand.

1. Commodity taxes are taxes imposed on specific goods or services.

Excise taxes are a type of commodity tax that is imposed on goods at the time of manufacture.

The effects of a commodity tax on consumer and producer surplus are determined by the elasticity of demand and supply, respectively.

The loss of consumer surplus and producer surplus due to a commodity tax is referred to as the deadweight loss (DWL) of the tax.

The DWL is the sum of the producer surplus lost and the consumer surplus lost as a result of the tax.

The DWL of a tax is usually greater the greater the price elasticity of supply and demand.

The DWL is the loss to society, which is not offset by any gains.

The burden of the tax (the total cost of the tax) is shared between the buyers and sellers in accordance with their relative elasticities of demand and supply.

2. Tax wedge is the difference between the price paid by buyers and the price received by sellers, and is equal to the amount of the tax.

It is the amount by which the price paid by buyers exceeds the price received by sellers.

It is also the amount by which the price received by sellers falls below the price paid by buyers.

The tax wedge includes the tax, as well as any other costs associated with the tax (such as compliance costs).

The size of the tax wedge is directly proportional to the amount of the tax.

The size of the tax wedge is inversely proportional to the elasticities of demand and supply.

The more elastic the demand and supply, the smaller the tax wedge. Conversely, the less elastic the demand and supply, the larger the tax wedge.

The larger the tax wedge, the greater the DWL of the tax.

Therefore, The correct answer of first is Option A. and the correct answer for second is Option E.

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Suppose that we exist in a market with demand given by: Qᵖᴰ = 100-p
And the private supply curve given by: Qᵖˢ = 4 + 2p
1. What is the market price (p*) and market quantity (Q*) in the privately- provided market?
Now suppose that this good creates a positive externality, and in fact, society would prefer, for any given price, for 6 more units to be purchased than private individuals want to purchase (i.e. demand). Given this:
2. What is the social demand curve?
3. Is the private market underproducing or overproducing the good relative to the social optimum? By how much?

Answers

The private market is underproducing the good relative to the social optimum by 6 units.

To determine the market price (p*) and market quantity (Q*) in the privately-provided market, we need to find the equilibrium point where the quantity demanded (Qᵖᴰ) equals the quantity supplied (Qᵖˢ).

Equating Qᵖᴰ and Qᵖˢ:

100 - p = 4 + 2p

Solving this equation, we find:

3p = 96

p = 32

Now, substitute the value of p back into either the demand or supply equation to find Q*:

Q* = 100 - p

Q* = 100 - 32

Q* = 68

Therefore, the market price (p*) is 32 and the market quantity (Q*) is 68 in the privately-provided market.

Now let's consider the positive externality and determine the social demand curve.

The social demand curve takes into account the additional 6 units of demand that society desires compared to private individuals' demand. This means the social demand curve is shifted upward by 6 units compared to the private demand curve.

Social Demand: Qˢᴰ = Qᵖᴰ + 6

Substituting the private demand equation, we have:

Qˢᴰ = 100 - p + 6

Qˢᴰ = 106 - p

Therefore, the social demand curve is Qˢᴰ = 106 - p.

Comparing the private market outcome to the social optimum, we can see if the private market is underproducing or overproducing the good relative to the social optimum.

In the private market, Q* = 68, and at the market price (p* = 32), the social demand (Qˢᴰ) would be:

Qˢᴰ = 106 - p

Qˢᴰ = 106 - 32

Qˢᴰ = 74

The social optimum, given the positive externality, is at Qˢᴰ = 74, which is 6 units higher than the market quantity (Q* = 68).

Therefore, the private market is underproducing the good relative to the social optimum by 6 units.

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What is the yield to maturity of a bond with a par value of $1000, makes coupon payments semi-annually, has a 10% coupon rate, has 12.5 years until maturity, and is currently selling for $1158.22? Num

Answers

The yield to maturity of a bond with a par value of $1000, and makes coupon payments semi-annually, is 10.26%

How to determine the value

The formula that is used to calculate the yield to maturity is expressed as;

YTM = [C1 + (P - F) / (1 + YTM)ⁿ] / 2

Such that the parameters of the formula are expressed as;

C1 is the payment for the first coupon P is the current price F is the face value n is the number of semi-annual periods

Now, substitute the values into the formula, we get;

YTM = [50 + (1158.22 - 1000) / (1 + YTM)²⁵] / 2

Expand the bracket, we get;

YTM = { 50 + 158.22/ (1 + YTM)²⁵] / 2

Then, we have that;

YTM = 10.26%

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Some authors feel that negative aspects of EI have not been fully explored. Could any potentially negative consequences stem from someone who masters his/her ability to be emotionally intelligent? Explain

Answers

Emotional Intelligence (EI) refers to the capability to identify, assess, and manage one's emotions as well as others'. Some authors feel that negative aspects of EI have not been fully explored. Potentially income negative consequences could stem from someone.

Mastery of EI has the potential to yield a wide range of positive outcomes, including improved communication, better problem-solving, and increased leadership negative consequences that could stem from mastering People who master emotional intelligence may find it challenging to switch off their emotions even in inappropriate circumstances.

Emotional intelligence can be difficult to control, and those who have mastered it may find it hard to stop their emotions from overwhelming them.Extreme Sensitivity: Individuals with heightened emotional intelligence are generally highly sensitive and can be hurt easily. People who are emotionally intelligent can be affected more by personal events and interactions, leading to negative experiences and stress in some circumstances.Burnout: Those who are masters of emotional intelligence might be overstimulated, leading to exhaustion, and a weakened immune system. They may also be unable to disconnect from work, causing burnout.

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