use atoms and molecules in a sentence

Explanation:

With most of our blue planet covered by water, it's little wonder that, centuries ago, the oceans were believed to hide mysterious creatures including sea serpents and mermaids. Merfolk (mermaids and mermen) are, of course, the marine version of half-human, half-animal legends that have captured human imagination for ages. One source, the "Arabian Nights," described mermaids as having "moon faces and hair like a woman's but their hands and feet were in their bellies and they had tails like fishes."

C.J.S. Thompson, a former curator at the Royal College of Surgeons of England, notes in his book "The Mystery and Lore of Monsters" that "Traditions concerning creatures half-human and half-fish in form have existed for thousands of years, and the Babylonian deity Era or Oannes, the Fish-god ... is usually depicted as having a bearded head with a crown and a body like a man, but from the waist downwards he has the shape of a fish." Greek mythology contains stories of the god Triton, the merman messenger of the sea, and several modern religions including Hinduism and Candomble (an Afro-Brazilian belief) worship mermaid goddesses to this day.

When the average velocity is 2.4 m/s, the horizontal 0.35 meter diameter cast iron water pipe experiences a pressure drop (P) of roughly 16457.14 kPa every 100 meters.

To determine the pressure drop per 100-meter length of a horizontal 0.35-meter diameter cast iron water pipe, we can use the Darcy-Weisbach equation. The equation is as follows:

[tex]\begin{equation}\Delta P = \frac{f \cdot \frac{L}{D} \cdot (\rho \cdot V^2)}{2}[/tex]

where ΔP is the pressure drop, f is the Darcy friction factor, L is the length of the pipe (100 meters in this case), D is the diameter of the pipe (0.35 meters), ρ is the density of water, and V is the average velocity of water.

To calculate the pressure drop, we need to determine the Darcy friction factor. For a rough cast iron pipe, we can estimate the friction factor to be around 0.02.

Using the given values and the estimated friction factor, the calculation becomes:

[tex]\begin{equation}\Delta P = \frac{0.02 \cdot \frac{100}{0.35} \cdot (\rho \cdot 2.4^2)}{2}[/tex]

Since the density of water (ρ) is approximately 1000 kg/m³, we can substitute this value and calculate the pressure drop:

ΔP = [tex]\frac{0.02 \times \frac{100}{0.35} \times 1000 \times 2.4^2}{2}[/tex]

Let's solve the expression to calculate the pressure drop (ΔP) in kilopascals (kPa):

ΔP =  [tex]\frac{0.02 \times \frac{100}{0.35} \times 1000 \times 2.4^2}{2}[/tex]

First, let's simplify the expression:

ΔP = [tex]\frac{0.02 \times (285.714) \times (1000 \times 5.76)}{2}[/tex]

   = 16457.14

Therefore, the pressure drop (ΔP) per 100-meter length of the horizontal 0.35-meter diameter cast iron water pipe, when the average velocity is 2.4 m/s, is approximately 16457.14 kPa.

To know more about the cast iron water pipe refer here :

https://brainly.com/question/32455854#

#SPJ11

Complete question :

Determine the pressure drop per 100 -m length of horizontal new 0.35−m-diameter cast iron water pipe when the average velocity 2.4 m/s. Δp= kPa

When the given alkene is treated with MCPBA (meta-chloroperoxybenzoic acid), four stereoisomers are formed due to the presence of a double bond.

These stereoisomers can be classified as cis-trans isomers and enantiomers. When an alkene reacts with MCPBA, it undergoes an epoxidation reaction, resulting in the formation of an epoxide. The given alkene has a double bond between two carbon atoms, and MCPBA adds an oxygen atom across this double bond, forming an epoxide.

The first type of stereoisomer formed is the cis-trans isomers. The cis isomer refers to the arrangement where the two substituents on the same side of the double bond in the alkene remain on the same side in the resulting epoxide. The trans isomer refers to the arrangement where the substituents on the alkene's two carbons switch sides in the resulting epoxide. Thus, two cis-trans isomers are formed.

The second type of stereoisomer formed is enantiomers. Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. In the case of the given alkene, if the substituents attached to the double bond are different, two enantiomers are formed as a result of the epoxidation reaction.

In total, four stereoisomers are formed when the given alkene is treated with MCPBA. These stereoisomers can be identified by their different arrangements of substituents around the newly formed epoxide group.

To learn more about stereoisomers refer:

https://brainly.com/question/18120547

#SPJ11

Answer:

3 moles

Explanation:

Ratio of O2 to CO2 = 2 : 1 = 6 : 3

Answer:

the velocity component parallel to the magnetic field vector

Explanation:

When a charged particle moves in a helical path, we can decompose its velocity into two parts v_parallel and v_perpendicular to the magnetic field.

Let's analyze which component receives a force

            F = q vxB

the bold letters indicate vectors, in the vector product if the two vectors are parallel the angle is zero and the sin 0 = 0 for which there is no force. therefore the velocity parallel to the field remains constant

If the two vectors are perpendicular, the angle is 90º and the sin 90 = 1, for which there is a force, which has a radial direction and consequently a centripetal acceleration that gives a circular path that does not remove the particle from the magnetic field

When checking the different answers, the correct one is: the velocity component parallel to the magnetic field vector

Option (b) is the correct answer: the pressure of a gas increases due to an increase in temperature because the molecules strike the walls of the container more often.

Gay-Lussac's law, also known as the pressure law, states that the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, assuming the volume and amount of gas remain constant. Therefore, an increase in temperature leads to an increase in pressure. The explanation for this phenomenon lies in the kinetic theory of gases.

According to the kinetic theory, the temperature of a gas is related to the average kinetic energy of its molecules. When the temperature increases, the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules also increases. As a result, the gas molecules move with higher velocities and collide more frequently with the walls of the container.

The frequency of molecular collisions with the container walls is directly related to the pressure exerted by the gas. When the gas molecules strike the walls more often due to increased kinetic energy, the pressure exerted by the gas increases.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer: the pressure of a gas increases due to an increase in temperature because the molecules strike the walls of the container more often.

An increase in temperature causes the pressure of a gas to increase because the gas molecules collide more frequently with the walls of the container, as explained by Gay-Lussac's law and the kinetic theory of gases.

To know more about molecules visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1078183

#SPJ11

Answer:

Se obtienen 2,27 gramos de metanol.

Explanation:

La reacción entre monóxido de carbono e hidrógeno para producir metanol es la siguiente:

CO + 2H₂ → CH₃OH  

Para encontrar el reactivo limitante y el reactivo en exceso, debemos calcular el número de moles de CO y H₂:

[tex]\eta_{CO} = \frac{m}{M} [/tex]              

En donde:    

m: es la masa

M: es el peso molecular  

[tex]\eta_{CO} = \frac{m}{M_{CO}} = \frac{2,0 g}{28,01 g/mol} = 0,071 moles [/tex]

[tex]\eta_{H_{2}} = \frac{2,0 g}{2,02 g/mol} = 0,99 moles [/tex]

Dado que la relación estequiométrica entre CO y H₂ es 1:2, el número de moles de hidrógeno gaseoso que reaccionan con el monóxido de carbono es:

[tex] \eta_{H_{2}} = \frac{2}{1}*0,071 = 0,142 moles [/tex]      

Entonces, se necesitan 0,142 moles de H₂ para reaccionar con 0,071 moles de CO y debido a que se tienen más moles de H₂ (0,99 moles) entonces el reactivo limitante es CO y el reactivo en exceso es H₂.

Ahora podemos encontar la masa de metanol obtenida usando el reactivo limitante (CO) y sabiendo que la realcion estequiométrica entre CO y CH₃OH es 1:1.    

[tex] \eta_{CH_{3}OH} = \eta_{CO} = 0,071 moles [/tex]

[tex] m = 0,071 moles*32,04 g/mol = 2,27 g [/tex]

Por lo tanto, se obtienen 2,27 gramos de metanol.

Espero que te sea de utilidad!      

hello! it is velocity.

i say this because, Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its state of motion. ... The state of motion of an object is defined by its velocity - the speed with a direction.

Answer:

they all need a source of oxygen

Answer:

B

Explanation:

A balanced equation is a chemical equation in which the number of atoms of each element on both sides of the equation is equal. It represents a chemical reaction, indicating the reactants and products involved and the stoichiometric relationship between them.

The balanced equation for the reaction between RbNO3 and BeF2 is: 2RbNO3 + BeF2 → Be(NO3)2 + 2RbF.

To check if the equation is balanced or not, we can count the number of atoms of each element on both sides of the equation.

Here, we have Rb: 2 on both sides,  N: 2 on both sides, O: 6 on both sides, Be: 1 on both sides, F: 2 on both sides.

Therefore, the balanced equation for the reaction between RbNO3 and BeF2 is 2RbNO3 + BeF2 → Be(NO3)2 + 2RbF, which has the correct products for the given reactants.

Learn more about balanced equation here ;

https://brainly.com/question/31242898

#SPJ11

The charge on the positively charged particle is approximately  4.08 x 10^-6 C.

To find the charge on the particle, we can use the relationship between potential difference (V), charge (Q), and distance (r) given by the equation V = kQ/r, where k is the electrostatic constant.

Let's assume the distance between the positively charged particle and the 5000 V equipotential surface is r1 and the distance between the particle and the 4000 V equipotential surface is r2. We are given that r2 is 26.0 cm (or 0.26 m) farther than r1.

Using the equation for potential difference, we can write the following equations:

5000 = kQ/r1

4000 = kQ/r2

Dividing the two equations, we get:

5000/4000 = r2/r1

Simplifying, we find:

r2 = (5/4) * r1

Since r2 is 0.26 m farther than r1, we can write:

r2 = r1 + 0.26

Substituting the expression for r2 in terms of r1 into the above equation, we get:

r1 + 0.26 = (5/4) * r1

Simplifying, we find:

r1 = 0.52 m

Now, substituting this value of r1 into the equation 5000 = kQ/r1, we can solve for the charge Q:

Q = (5000 * r1) / k

Substituting the values of r1 and k (8.99 x 10^9 Nm²/C²), we find:

Q = (5000 * 0.52) / (8.99 x 10^9)

Q ≈ 4.08 x 10^-6 C

Therefore, the charge on the positively charged particle is approximately 4.08 x 10^-6 C.

Learn more about nature of charges :

https://brainly.com/question/13871705

#SPJ11

The female whale is approximately 3,000 meters away from the male whale.

To calculate the distance between the male and female blue whales, we can use the formula:

Distance = (Speed of sound in water × Time) / 2

Given that the speed of sound in water is approximately 1,500 m/s and the time taken for the sound to return is 4 seconds, we can substitute these values into the formula:

Distance = (1,500 m/s × 4 s) / 2

Simplifying the equation:

Distance = (6,000 m) / 2

Distance = 3,000 m

For more such questions on whale,click on

https://brainly.com/question/19852583

#SPJ8

(a) The rms voltage is 120 V, and the frequency of the power line is 60 Hz. The circuit's impedance is calculated to be 100.075 Ω by combining the inductive and capacitive reactances.(b) tanφ = XL - XC /R where XL is the inductive reactance, XC is the capacitive reactance, and R is the resistance.(c) The average power loss is determined by calculating the average power absorbed by the resistor. By using the formula Pavg = ½Irms²R, the average power loss can be determined.

(a) The emf Srms = 120 V and the frequency of the power line is 60 Hz, the impedance of the circuit is calculated as 100.075 Ω, by combining the inductive and capacitive reactances.(b) The phase angle φ = tan^-1((XL - XC)/R) where XL is the inductive reactance, XC is the capacitive reactance, and R is the resistance.(c) The average power loss can be calculated using the formula Pavg = ½Irms²R, where Irms is the current through the resistor, R is the resistance of the circuit. Thus, the average power loss can be found by substituting the values of the variables, i.e., Pavg = ½ (Vrms / Z)^2 × R where Vrms is the rms voltage and Z is the impedance.

Know more about rms voltage, here:

https://brainly.com/question/13507291

#SPJ11

Answer:

The can would be heavier.

Explanation:

The more rust is on the can, (Or object) the more it weights it down.

Answer:

The answer would be heavier, though it depends upon the type of metal. Rusting is essentially corrosion. Rust is often caused by a piece of metal getting soaked in water and then being exposed to oxygen. The rust will add more weight to the can so it becomes heavier.

The ranking of the  work done by the torque is a > b > c > d.

The work done by the torque is equal to the change in rotational kinetic energy of the body.

Mathematically, the formula for torque is given as;

τ = r.F sinθ = Iα

where;

The formula for angular acceleration is given as;

α = Δω / Δt

where;

Thus, the greater the change in angular speed, the greater the work done by the applied torque.

(a) Δω = 7 rad/s - (-3 rad/s) = 10 rad/s

(b) Δω = 7 rad/s - 3 rad/s = 4 rad/s

(c) Δω = -7 rad/s - (-3 rad/s) = -4 rad/s

(d) Δω = -7 rad/s - 3 rad/s =  -10 rad/s

The ranking, a > b > c > d

Learn more about work done here: https://brainly.com/question/8119756

#SPJ4

The false statement about Zoroastrianism is both Ahurda Mazda and Angra Mainyu are considered gods. In Zoroastrianism, Ahura Mazda is considered the supreme deity and the embodiment of good, while Angra Mainyu (also known as Ahriman) represents the embodiment of evil and is not considered a god.

Zoroastrianism is an ancient Iranian religion founded by the prophet Zoroaster (or Zarathustra). It originated in Persia (modern-day Iran) and played a significant role in the development of Persian culture and civilization. Zoroastrianism promotes the belief in the existence of one supreme deity, Ahura Mazda, who represents goodness, truth, and light. The religion also recognizes the presence of destructive forces, personified by Angra Mainyu, representing evil and darkness. Zoroastrianism emphasizes the eternal struggle between these opposing forces and the importance of choosing good over evil. The faith does not impose itself on individuals but allows people to freely accept or reject its teachings.

To know more about zoroastrianism, click here https://brainly.com/question/8148348

#SPJ11

Answer:There are two main types of friction, static friction and kinetic friction. Static friction operates between two surfaces that aren't moving relative to each other, while kinetic friction acts between objects in motion.

Answer:

true:)

Explanation:

Part A :The position of the particle in vector form is given by[tex]r⃗ (t)=R[cos(ωt)i^+sin(ωt)j^][/tex]where R is the radius of the circle and ω is the angular velocity.The velocity of the particle is given by taking the derivative of the position vector with respect to time.

Taking derivative with respect to time on both side we get [tex]v⃗ (t)=d/dt R[cos(ωt)i^+sin(ωt)j^]= R[-in(ωt)ωi^+cos(ωt)ωj^]=ωR[-sin(ωt)i^+cos(ωt)j^]v⃗ (t)=ωR[-sin(ωt)i^+cos(ωt)j^][/tex]Thus the velocity of the mass at a time t is given by [tex]v⃗ (t)=ωR[-sin(ωt)i^+cos(ωt)j^][/tex].

Part B :

We have to find the velocity at time -t. The velocity of the particle is given by taking the derivative of the position vector with respect to time. Thus the velocity of the mass at a time -t is given by [tex]v⃗ (-t) = ωR[sin(ωt)i^ - cos(ωt)j^][/tex]

[tex]v⃗ (-t) = ωR[sin(ωt)i^ - cos(ωt)j^][/tex]Part C :

The average acceleration of the particle can be computed using the formulaa = [tex]Δv/Δt[/tex]The velocity at time t is given by[tex]v⃗ (t) = ωR[-sin(ωt)i^+cos(ωt)j^][/tex]

The velocity at time -t is given by [tex]v⃗ (-t) = ωR[sin(ωt)i^ - cos(ωt)j^][/tex]

[tex]v⃗ (-t) = ωR[sin(ωt)i^ - cos(ωt)j^][/tex]The change in velocity over the interval from -t to t is therefore

[tex]Δv = v(t) - v(-t) = 2ωR[sin(ωt)i^ + cos(ωt)j^][/tex]

The time interval over which this change occurs is[tex]Δt = 2t[/tex]Thus the average acceleration of the particle is given by a = [tex]Δv/Δt = ω^2R[sin(ωt)i^ + cos(ωt)j^]/t[/tex]

[tex]a = Δv/Δt = ω^2R[sin(ωt)i^ + cos(ωt)j^]/t[/tex]

The acceleration can be expressed in terms of R, ω, t, and the unit vectors [tex]i^ and j^[/tex] as [tex]a = ω^2R[sin(ωt)i^ + cos(ωt)j^]/t[/tex].

To know more about angular velocity visit :

https://brainly.com/question/30237820

#SPJ11

Answer:

t = 1130 s = 18.83 min

Explanation:

First, we will calculate the energy required to evaporate 500 g of water:

[tex]E = mL[/tex]

where,

E = Energy Required for evaporation of water =?

m = mass of water = 500 g = 0.5 kg

L = Latent heat of vaporization of water = 2.26 MJ/kg = 2260 KJ/kg

Therefore,

[tex]E = (0.5\ kg)(2260\ KJ/kg)\\E = 1130\ KJ[/tex]

Now, we will calculate the time required:

[tex]P = \frac{W}{t}\\\\t = \frac{W}{P}[/tex]

where,

t = time = ?

P = Power of kettle = 1 KW

Therefore,

[tex]t = \frac{1130\ KJ}{1 KW}\\\\[/tex]

t = 1130 s = 18.83 min

The frequency of light with a wavelength of 400 nm is approximately [tex]7.494 * 10^{14} Hz[/tex] (or 749.4 THz).

To calculate the frequency of light, you can use the equation:

Frequency = Speed of light / Wavelength

The speed of light in a vacuum is approximately 299,792,458 meters per second (m/s). We need to convert the given wavelength of 400 nm to meters.

[tex]1 nm = 1 * 10^{-9}[/tex] meters

Converting 400 nm to meters:

[tex]400 nm = 400 * 10^{-9} meters = 4 * 10^{-7} meters[/tex]

Now, we can calculate the frequency:

Frequency = (Speed of light) / (Wavelength)

[tex]= 299,792,458 m/s / (4 * 10^{-7} meters)\\ =7.494 * 10^{14} Hz[/tex]

Therefore, the frequency of light with a wavelength of 400 nm is approximately [tex]7.494 * 10^{14} Hz[/tex] (or 749.4 THz).

To learn more about Wavelength visit:

brainly.com/question/32201888

#SPJ11

The energy contained in a 1.0 m length of the beam from a 7.7 mW laser is 7.7 μJ (microjoules).

To calculate the energy contained in the length of the laser beam, we need to use the power of the laser and the formula:

Energy = Power × Time

However, we don't have the time information here. To proceed, we'll assume a continuous wave laser where the power remains constant over time.

Given:

Power of the laser = 7.7 mW (milliwatts)

Length of the beam = 1.0 m

First, we need to convert the power from milliwatts to watts:

7.7 mW = 7.7 × 10^(-3) W

Next, we can calculate the energy using the formula:

Energy = Power × Time

Since we assume a continuous wave laser, we can rearrange the formula as:

Energy = Power × Time = Power × (1 second)

Plugging in the values:

Energy = (7.7 × 10^(-3) W) × (1 second)

The time in this case is 1 second because we assume a continuous beam over that duration. Multiplying the power by 1 second doesn't change the value.

Finally, we can calculate the energy:

Energy = (7.7 × 10^(-3) W) × (1 second)

= 7.7 × 10^(-3) J (joules)

Since the joule is a relatively large unit, it's common to express small energy values in smaller units such as microjoules (μJ).

Converting from joules to microjoules:

1 J = 10^6 μJ

Therefore,

Energy = 7.7 × 10^(-3) J

= 7.7 × 10^(-3) × 10^6 μJ

= 7.7 × 10^(3) μJ

= 7.7 μJ

The energy contained in a 1.0 m length of the beam from a 7.7 mW laser is 7.7 μJ (microjoules).

To learn more about energy, visit    

https://brainly.com/question/2003548

#SPJ11

Kinetic energy refers to the energy possessed by an object due to its motion. The formula for kinetic energy is given as follows: Kinetic energy = 1/2 × mass × velocity², Where: mass = the mass of the object, velocity = the speed of the object.

We can equate the kinetic energies of the car and truck using the formula above. Let's assume that the speed of the car is v. Therefore, we can write:1/2 × 1800 × v² = 1/2 × 1.80×10⁴ × (25/3.6)², Where:25/3.6 is used to converting the speed of the truck from km/h to m/s.

Simplifying the right-hand side of the equation, we get:1/2 × 1.80×10⁴ × (25/3.6)² = 781250 J.

Now, we can solve for v by dividing both sides of the equation by 1/2 × 1800:1/2 × 1800 × v² = 781250v² = 781250 ÷ 900v² = 868.056v ≈ 29.47 m/s.

Therefore, the speed at which an 1800 kg compact car has the same kinetic energy as a 1.80×10⁴ kg truck going 25.0 km/h is approximately 29.47 m/s.

Learn more about Kinetic energy here ;

https://brainly.com/question/999862

#SPJ11

The given statement '' A binary phase diagram indicates the phases of two elements (at least one of which is metallic) as a function of composition and temperature at atmospheric pressure '' is True.

A binary phase diagram is a graphical representation that shows the phases of two elements, at least one of which is metallic, as a function of composition and temperature at a specific pressure, typically atmospheric pressure.

The diagram displays different regions representing the stability of different phases (such as solid, liquid, and gas) as the composition and temperature of the system are varied. It is a valuable tool in understanding the behavior and phase transitions in binary systems.

Hence, The given statement '' A binary phase diagram indicates the phases of two elements (at least one of which is metallic) as a function of composition and temperature at atmospheric pressure '' is True.

To know more about binary phase diagram here

https://brainly.com/question/31949917

#SPJ4

Answer:

1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

Explanation:

1. The force exerted is, F = 35 N

  Distance the box is moved, d = 4 m

  So the amount of work done is, W = F x d

                                                            = 35 x 4

                                                            = 140 Newton-meters

2. Work done, W  = 420 Nm

   Time, T = 3 seconds

   Therefore, the power required is,

   [tex]$P=\frac{W}{T}$[/tex]

   [tex]$P=\frac{420}{3}$[/tex]

       = 140 joules

3. The force exerted is, F = 1.2 N

  Distance the box is moved, d = 5 m

  So the amount of work done is, W = F x d

                                                            = 1.2 x 5

                                                            = 6 Newton-meters

4. Work done, W  = 120 Nm

   Time, T = 20 seconds

   Therefore, the power required is,

   [tex]$P=\frac{W}{T}$[/tex]

   [tex]$P=\frac{120}{20}$[/tex]

       = 6 joules

The momentum of the muon traveling at 0.996c can be calculated using the relativistic momentum equation, and its kinetic energy is (1/0.089389 - 1) × (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × c².

To calculate the momentum of a muon traveling at 0.996c, we can use the relativistic momentum equation:

p = m × v / √(1 - (v/c)²),

where p is the momentum, m is the mass, v is the velocity, and c is the speed of light.

Given that the mass of the muon at rest in the laboratory is 207 times the electron mass, we can denote the mass of the muon as m = 207 × [tex]m_e[/tex], where [tex]m_e[/tex] is the mass of an electron.

Let's substitute the values into the equation:

p = (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × (0.996c) / √(1 - (0.996c/c)²)

= (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × (0.996c) / √(1 - 0.996²)

= (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × (0.996c) / √(1 - 0.992016)

= (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × (0.996c) / √(0.007984)

= (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × (0.996c) / 0.089389

Now, to calculate the kinetic energy (KE) of the muon, we can use the equation:

KE = (γ - 1) × m × c²,

where γ is the Lorentz factor given by γ = 1 / √(1 - (v/c)²).

Substituting the values:

γ = 1 / √(1 - (0.996c/c²))

= 1 / √(1 - 0.996²)

= 1 / √(1 - 0.992016)

= 1 / √(0.007984)

= 1 / 0.089389

KE = (1/0.089389 - 1) × (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × c²

Learn more about kinetic energy at

https://brainly.com/question/999862

#SPJ4

Answer:

The increase in gravitational potential energy is the same in both cases

Explanation:

It is easier to climb a mountain in a zigzag way rather than climbing on a straight line but since the distance is the same ( vertical height ) , mass and gravity is the same. Hence the increase in gravitational potential energy is the same in both cases.

gravitational potential energy = mgh ( same in both cases )

m = mass

g = acceleration due to gravity

h = distance ( vertical height )

The decay of uranium isotopes is used to provide information about the age of earth.