There are two prominent types of methods of economic study or analysis:
A) Deductive Method
B) Inductive Method.
Now, According to the question:
Let's know:
Economic Analysis:-
Economic analysis is the process of assessment or examination of any particular topic or issue to understand how they are affecting the organization or system. This process of analysis comprises administering and operationalizing a comprehensive and holistic study of various processes such as production, consumption, consumer behavior, national income, employment, and others. It studies and estimates the topic in detail with all the aspects associated with the industry concerned.
What are the three methods of economics?
The three most common methods are the value-added method, the income method, and the expenditure method. The value-added method focuses on the value added to a product at each stage of its production. Next, the income method focuses on the income received on the factors of production such as land and labor.
There are two prominent types of methods of economic study or analysis:
A) Deductive Method
B) Inductive Method.
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16. The CPI differs from the GDP deflator in that the CPI is a price index, while the GDP deflator is an inflation index. firms show up in the CPI but not in the GDP deflator show up in the CPI but not in the GDP deflator government show up in the CPI but not in the GDP deflator. (a) (b) increases in the prices of foreign produced capital goods that are sold to U.S. (c) increases in the prices of foreign produced goods that are sold to U.S. consumers (d) increases in the prices of domestically produced goods that are sold to the U.S.
. The CPI differs from the GDP deflator in that the CPI is a price index, while the GDP deflator is an inflation index firms show up in the CPI but not in the GDP deflator increases in the prices of foreign produced capital goods that are sold to U.S.
The Measures price movements in products and services bought out of glove compartment by urban consumers, where as GDP price index and underlying price deflator measure price changes in goods and services bought by purchasers, businesses, government, and foreigners, but not importers. The CPI includes widely used products, whereas the GDP price index includes all goods and services. The CPI does not account for all goods and services. CPI measurements are based on a fixed basket of goods.
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ranmali is a professor at an elite university. over the years, she has noticed that many students seem much more concerned with the letter grade they will receive than with the knowledge and skill acquisition the class requires. she also notices that many firms who are hiring graduates of her university are focused on special certificates and gpas but ask few questions about the content of academic programs. these are both examples of
She has seen that students are more focused on getting a certain letter grade than actually learning the skill acquisition that is being covered in class. She also observes that a lot of hiring companies emphasize unique certifications. These two situations both include credentialism.
What are the three phases of skill acquisition?Fitts proposes three stages for the development of motor skills: the cognitive stage, the associative stage, and the autonomous stage. Because it involves processing information, the cognitive stage is very interesting to cognitivists. This stage, which is also known as the verbal-motor stage, is verbal-cognitive in character since it entails the verbal transmission and comprehension of new information. At this stage, the person is attempting to digest information in an effort to grasp cognitively the conditions and constraints of motor movement. The associative stage is characterized by a significant decrease in verbal information, lesser performance improvements, conscious performance, adjustment-making, uncomfortable and disorganized movement, and a prolonged completion time. The Fitts and Posner paradigm views this as the last phase of motor learning. To reach the autonomous level, years of instruction are frequently necessary.
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What are the main uses for a checking account?
You may use an ATM with a bank account to control your daily spending, pay your bills, and have your paycheck transferred directly into your account.
What do you mean by account?Account. 1 of 2 noun. ac count.: a summary of transactions within a fiscal period displaying the resulting balance.: a record of debit and credit entries to cover transactions concerning a specific item (as cash or notes receivable).
What are the 3 types of accounts?Real, personal, or notional accounts are the many types of accounts used in accounting. The three categories of real account are then determined: tangible real account and intangible real account. Personal stories can come in three major subtypes: Organic, Authentic, and Artificial.
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Field underwriting performed by the producer involves
A) assigning a risk classification to be insured
B) providing commission information to the applicant
C) approving or declining an applicant
D) completing the application and collecting initial premium
Field underwriting performed by the producer involves completing the application and collecting initial premium. hence, option (D) will be regarded as a relevant option choice.
Give a brief account on Field underwriting.The first assessment an insurance agent or producer makes about a potential client's ability to meet the underwriting requirements of the insurer is known as "field underwriting." After first assessing the item or person, the agent makes a decision. A insurance advisor has many different responsibilities. On the one hand, they defend their clients' best interests, give advice about the coverage they need, explain the terms of the policy, and eventually help their clients find the coverage that is best suited to their needs and financial situation.
An insurance advisor, on the other hand, simultaneously represents the best interests of the insurance company. The advisor's job in this role include performing some field underwriting as well as effectively reporting the risks to the insurer.
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Which component of an enterprise platform focuses on supply chain management of the company's needs?
Core processing compo-nent of enterprise plat-form focuses on supply chain manage-ment. Technology used to over-see regular company operations, such as sup-ply chains, is a component of core processing.
Core processes are the strateg-ically important processes in the comp-any. Back office tas-ks and inter-nal ope-rations may also be includ-ed. An enter-prise platform's features include man-aging customer inform-ation, scheduling, and order process-ing, among others.
SA-P, Micro-soft, Ora-cle, AW-S, Go-ogle, and Sales-force are the "Big Six" enterprise plat-form partners.
This model's top level con-tains five distinct processes, some-times referred to as supply chain manage-ment components: plan, source, make, del-iver, and return. Inventory manage-ment and process con-trol are both depend-ent on planning.
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a pure strategy is one where only one capacity factor is adjusted to meet demand. group of answer choices true false
The correct answer is False a pure strategy is one where only one capacity factor is adjusted to meet demand.
Demand is just a consumer's desire to acquire products and services immediately and to pay the price associated with them. Demand may be defined as the quantity of things that consumers are prepared and willing to purchase at various prices within a specific time frame. Key Learnings. According to the economic concept known as the law of demand, customer demand for an item increases when prices are low and decreases when prices are high. When shoppers rush to purchase goods at steep prices during Black Friday bargains, the law of demand is in effect.
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What advantage related to tags does QuickBooks Online Advanced have over other subscription levels?
QuickBooks Online Advanced allows for 300 ungrouped tags, whereas the other levels allow for 100
QuickBooks Online Advanced allows for sub-tags and sub-tag groups, whereas the other levels do not
QuickBooks Online Advanced offers unlimited tag groups, whereas the other levels allow for 40
QuickBooks Online Advanced offers 6 tag-based standard reports, whereas the other levels allow for 2
QuickBooks Online Advanced offers unlimited tag group colors, whereas the other levels allow for 16
Which 3 inventory reports are readily available in QuickBooks Online?
Physical Inventory Worksheet report
Inventory by Product Category report
Inventory Obsolescence report
Bill of Materials report
Inventory Valuation Detail report
Inventory Valuation Summary report
What 3 pieces of information does the Performance Center use to perform industry benchmarking?
Company name
Revenue
Credit score
Industry sector
Number of employees
Location
Which 2 of these statements about tagging are true?
Target lines can be tagged
Journal entries can be tagged
Tags are not visible on printed invoices
Billable expenses will transfer tags to an invoice
QuickBooks Online Payroll transactions cannot be tagged
QuickBooks Online Advanced offers unlimited tag groups, whereas the other levels allow for 40. The Inventory Valuation Detail report is readily available in QuickBooks Online. Revenue, Credit Score, and also the Industry Sector is being used by the Performance Centre to perform industry benchmarking.
What is the meaning of industry benchmarking?
Industry Benchmarking involves analyzing a company's key performance indicators but also comparing them to competitors, usually the market leader. A company may be using benchmarking to assess the performance of its systems, services, and products. In external benchmarking, a business contrasts its measurements with those of rivals or others operating in the same industry.
Internal, external, performance, as well as Industry benchmarking, are the four main categories.
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28. A company manufactures and sells a product for $91 per unit. The company's fixed costs are $859,716 and its variable costs are $25 per unit. What is the company's break- even point in dollars? (Round all calculations to 2 decimal places.) A. $627,592.68 B. $1,177,693.15 C. $622,982.60 D. $1,091,839.30 E. $66.00
29. A company has fixed costs of $90,000. Its contribution margin ratio is 30% and the product sells for $75 per unit. What is the company's break-even point in dollar sales? A. $ 60,000 B. $128,571 C. $180,000 D. $210,000 E. $300,000
30. Lee Company manufactures and sells widgets for $2 per unit. Its variable cost per unit is $1.70. Lee's total fixed costs are $10,500. How many widgets must Lee Company sell to break even? A. 5,250 B. 6,176 C. 35,000 D. 52,500 E. 61,760
31. At Flint Company's break-even point of 9,000 units, fixed costs are $180,000, and variable costs are $540,000 in total. The unit sales price is: A. $20 B. $40 C. $60 D. $80 E. $100 32. Jet Company's break-even point is 5,000 units. The company's fixed costs are 240,000, and its total variable costs are $85,000. The unit sales price is: A. $20 B. $40 C. $60 D. S65 E. $100
A business creates and markets a product for $91 per unit. The business's variable costs are $25 per unit, while its fixed costs are $859,716. The break-even point for the corporation in units is 13,026.
When a company's total costs equal its total revenues, such situation is known as break-even. Simply said, it's the turning moment when a business is able to produce a profit.
A break-even analysis is used by businesses to determine how many products or services they must sell in order to turn a profit. The business hasn't turned a profit yet, but it hasn't lost money either at this point when total costs and total revenues match throughout the course of a certain amount of time.
Break-even point in units = Contribution margin per unit – Fixed costs.
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Various nations have adopted policies designed to combat overfishing. Which of the following approaches is commonly used to combat the problem of overfishing?
A. Reducing the limits on the numbers of commercial fish species that can be caught
B. Banning the use of sonar as a means for capturing fish in open ocean waters
C. Promoting fishing in estuaries and breeding grounds rather than in the open ocean
D. Enforcing minimum-size requirements for the capture of some commercial species
Various nations have adopted policies designed to combat overfishing. the approaches which is commonly used to combat the problem of overfishing is
D. Enforcing minimum-size requirements for the capture of some commercial species
Why do nations combat overfishing?One of the main causes of population decreases in ocean species is fishing. Except for overfishing, which occurs when fishing vessels take more fish than the ocean can replenish, taking fish is not necessarily detrimental for the ocean.
Bycatch, or the capturing of unwanted marine life while fishing for a different species, is directly related to overfishing. This is also a severe marine threat that results in the unnecessary extinction of thousands of sea turtles and cetaceans, as well as billions of fish.
Overfishing harms more than just the marine ecosystem.
Enforcing minimum-size requirements for the capture of some commercial species is an approach to curb overfishing
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ht tech wants to purchase a $130,000 machine. the machine will last 10 years, be paid off in 6 years, and have no salvage value at the end of its life. net annual cash flows are $24,000, the discount factor is 12%, and the present value of cash flows is $135,605. per the net present value (npv) method, the purchase is acceptable for ht. what was the determining factor in this decision?
Net present value is a way of estimating the present value of cash inflows and outflows by discounting the cash flow by the needed rate of return. The machine's net present value is $5,605. Hence, the NPV of cash flow was positive.
What is the Net present value?The net present value (NPV) or net present worth of a series of cash flows occurring at different times is employed. The time elapsed between now and the cash flow determines the present value of the cash flow. The discount rate also has an impact. It provides a method for studying and comparing capital projects or financial products with time-varying cash flows, such as loans, investments, insurance payments, and many more applications.
Given,
Net annual cash flows = $24,000
Discount factor = 12%
The present value of cash flows = $135,605
Therefore,
Net present Value = $135,605 - $130,000
= $5,605
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What are the four pillars of TCS enterprise agile transformation?
One TCS IT company that has implemented a value-driven, outcome-based delivery strategy is Ultimatix.
TCS IT's foundations are people (culture), process, and technology, and it uses each of these to build acceptance for a new way of doing things and develop commercial value streams. TCS is one company that is participating in Enterprise Agile 2020 by promoting business agility and supporting rapidly changing requirements. The IT department created a solid and flexible infrastructure in light of TCS' Enterprise Agile 2020 vision to support the company's change initiative.
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What was one result of the work of the Tennessee Valley Authority TVA in the 1930s?
Electric lighting and contemporary appliances made life easier and increased agricultural productivity.
What did the Tennessee Valley Authority perform throughout the 1930s?The Tennessee Valley Authority Act, which was signed in 1933, created a public corporation with the following objectives: "To improve the navigability and to provide for the flood control of the Tennessee River; to provide for reforestation and the proper use of marginal lands in the Tennessee Valley; to provide for the agricultural and industrial development."The biggest change in Valley life was brought about by the energy produced by TVA dams. Electric lighting and contemporary appliances made life easier and increased agricultural productivity. Additionally, the presence of power drew businesses to the area, resulting in the creation of much-needed jobs.To learn more about Tennessee Valley Authority Act refer to:
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Which of the following stages of the product development process assesses a product’s compatibility in the marketplace?
The stages of the product development process that assesses a product’s compatibility in the marketplace include the following: B) business analysis.
What is a product life cycle?A product life cycle can be defined as all of the phases or stages that a specific product moves through, primarily from the point (period) it was introduced by the manufacturer (producer) into the market to the point (period) when it is eventually revoked and moved from the market.
Generally speaking, there are four (4) main stages in the product life cycle and these including the following;
Introduction.Growth.Maturity.DeclineDuring business analysis of the product development process, the compatibility of a product in the marketplace should be assessed.
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Complete Question:
Which of the following stages of the product development process assesses a product's
compatibility in the market place?
A) idea development
B) business analysis
C) test marketing
D) commercialization
E) idea screening
The stages of the product development process assesses a product’s compatibility in the marketplace is business analysis.
What is the role of a business analyst?Business analysts evaluate an organization's performance and work with it to enhance its systems and processes. In order to find solutions to business challenges, they perform research and analysis. They then assist in introducing these solutions to businesses and their customers.
The business analysis stage of the product development process is where it is possible to evaluate how well the product fits the market and its potential for profitability.
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Question 20 (1.42 points) Which statement best describes an Institutional Review Board (IRB)?
O Subjects are told what the purposes of the study are, what participation in the study involves, what risks (if any) are involved in participating, and what the person can expect to receive in return for participation.
O Subjects must be told the true purpose of the study and the reason for the deception.
O Personal information will not be shared with anyone outside the immediate research group and any results from the research will not identify any of the participants by name.
O They usually comprise people who have research experience themselves and therefore have experience that enables them to judge whether the research being proposed follows reasonable ethical guidelines.
B Question 21 (1.42 points) Which is an example of a negative correlation? 1
O exercise and physical health
O study time and grades
O exposure to sunlight and plant growth
O gas prices and the rate of driving
Option A is correct. The statement best describes an Institutional Review Board (IRB) is Subjects are told what the purposes of the study are, what participation in the study involves, what risks (if any) are involved in participating, and what the person can expect to receive in return for participation.
Under FDA guidelines, an Institutional Review Board is bunch that has been officially assigned to audit and screen biomedical examination including human subjects. As per FDA guidelines, an IRB has the position to endorse, require adjustments in (to get endorsement), or object research. This gathering survey serves a significant job in the assurance of the privileges and government assistance of human examination subjects.
The purpose behind IRB audit is to guarantee, both ahead of time and by occasional survey, that fitting advances are taken to safeguard the privileges and government assistance of people partaking as subjects in the examination. To achieve this reason, IRBs utilize a gathering cycle to survey research conventions and related materials (e.g., informed assent reports and examiner handouts) to guarantee insurance of the privileges and government assistance of human subjects of exploration.
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What is purchasing power parity PPP and how can we use it to compare the economies of countries?
A price level of 0.5 shown for a country in this map means that for a given sum of US dollars you can buy twice as many goods and services in that country than in the US.
Why is PPP important?PPPs control for the differences in price levels between economies and equalize the purchasing power of currencies. In this way, PPPs show the relative price of a given basket of goods and services in each of the economies being compared with reference to a base economy.
Is PPP better than GDP?GDP comparisons using PPP are arguably more useful than those using nominal GDP when assessing the domestic market of a state because PPP takes into account the relative cost of local goods, services and inflation rates of the country, rather than using international market exchange rates, which may distort the real .
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How many hours of higher education are required to become a certified
public accountant?
A. 190
B. 200
C. 120
D. 150
Answer:
150
communication researchers who follow media ownership saw a consistent trend of characterized by mergers and buyouts through the 1980s and 1990s, resulting in fewer but larger media companies in the 2000s. a. commodification b. conglomeration c. concentration d. synergy
Communication researchers who follow media ownership saw a consistent trend of option C: concentration through the 1980s and 1990s characterized by mergers and buyouts and resulting in fewer but larger media companies in the 2000s.
What does marketing concentration mean?Market concentration gauges how tightly held together a select group of companies' market shares are. It is frequently used as a stand-in for the level of competition.
Therefore, the goal of a concentration strategy is to dominate one particular industry. Three strategies for industry expansion are product development, market development, and market penetration.
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See correct question below
Communication researchers who follow media ownership saw a consistent trend of _________ through the 1980s and 1990s characterized by mergers and buyouts and resulting in fewer but larger media companies in the 2000s. a. commodification b. conglomeration c. concentration d. synergy
as the inventory control manager for a group of shoe stores, xin-xu calls the bossie boots warehouse when he needs to restock this product because the manufacturer stores all of its products there. another name for this warehouse would be a
As the inventory control manager for a group of shoe stores, xin-xu calls the bossie boots warehouse when he needs to restock this product because the manufacturer stores all of its products there. another name for this warehouse would be a distribution center.
What is distribution center?Distribution center can be defined as a warehouse that tend to stock different product and this product are been re-distributed to the following :
WholesalersRetailersEnd or final userMost customers tend to often visit this distribution center for the items or product they need because they believed that they will often get their desired product there instead of having to visit wholesalers or retailers for the same product.
Therefore this is called distribution center.
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What 4 types of plans are involved in financial planning?
A financial plan should have a retirement strategy, a risk management plan, a long-term investment plan, a tax reduction strategy, and an estate plan as its key components.
What are the four forms of financial data?However, if you're trying to find investors for your company or are looking to apply for credit, you'll find that four different financial statements the balance sheet, the income statement, the cash flow statement, and the statement of owner's equity can be very helpful in assisting you in reaching your financing objectives.
What are financial management's four main pillars?Assets, debts, income, and expenses are the four fundamental elements of everyone's financial framework. You can assess the health of your finances and present net worth by measuring and contrasting these.
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What is the example of formal credit?
Banks and cooperative societies constitute the formal sector of credit.
Landlords, moneylenders, traders, relatives, friends and other sources of credit constitute the informal sector of credit.
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Which of the following are true of the job outlook according to the 2020-2021 occupational outlook handbook?
a. Certain jobs in the medical field were expected to grow the most rapidly.
b. The highest-paying occupations require a college degree.
The highest-paying occupations require a college degree is not true of the job outlook according to the 2020-2021 occupational outlook handbook.
The expected change in employment for specific occupations over a given time period is referred to as the job outlook. The Bureau of Labor and Statistics in the United States collects and analyses data to forecast the rate of change in employment in a given occupation over the next ten years. The term "job outlook" refers to the forecast of the expected change in a specific occupation. This forecast is typically estimated based on how many people are expected to work in a given occupation over a given time period, such as five or ten years.
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Gus tutors George in economics for 3 hours, and Gus values his time at $50 an hour. George is willing to pay up to $200 for a tutoring session. Instructions: Enter your answer as a whole number. If George pays only $180 for the tutoring session, consumer surplus will be If George pays only $180 for the tutoring session, consul res by $ V(Click to select producer surplus by $ less tharn greater than
Producer surplus by $10 less than greater.
What is a producer surplus?The difference between the price the producer is capable of selling his goods for and the price he actually receives from the sale is known as the quantity supplied. A criterion of supplier pleasure is producer surplus.
Gus's capacity to accept for three hours P = 3*50 =$150
George is prepared to pay A=$ 200.
George did in fact pay E=$180.
So consumer surplus will be determined as
= A-E
=200-180
=$20
Producer surplus will be determined as
= E-P
=180-150
=$30
Consumer surplus is less by
= 30 -20
=10
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Allie and sarah decided that they want to purchase renters insurance for the apartment they share. they made a list of all of the items to be covered by the insurance policy, along with their estimated values. if the items to be covered total more than $3000, the insurance company charges an annual premium of 23% of the total value of the items. if the items to be covered total $3000 or less, the insurance company charges an annual premium of 20% of the total value of the items. using the list of items allie and sarah provided, determine their monthly renters insurance premium.
The answer is b, or $74.75. The insurance provider charges an annual premium equal to 20% of the total worth of the covered products if the amount of the items is $3000 or less.
The data from the investigation must first be compiled.
Data:
Let x be the cost of the items that are covered.
They must if the items cost more than $3,000 to purchase.
suggests that x costs more than $3000 and
The annual premium will make up 23% of the entire amount. 2. If the items' combined retail worth is $3000 or less, it
shows that x is $3000. (or that x is)
not more than $3000)
We then determine the total value of everything. $3900 is the sum of all the values, which is higher.
The yearly insurance for the goods will be $897, or $23% times $3900.
But the premium is supposed to be paid every month. To locate Subtract 12 from the total premium.
$897/12 = $74.75
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suppose government imposes a consumption tax of 10% on the consumptiom of every citizen. citizen a has a yearly income of $10,000 and annual saving of $1000. how much does citizen a pay in taxes?
Suppose government imposes a consumption tax of 10% on the consumption of every citizen. citizen a has a yearly income of $10,000 and annual saving of $1000.The amount that the citizen a pay in taxes is:$900.
How to find consumption tax?Using this formula to find the consumption
Income = Consumption + Savings
Consumption = Income - Savings
Consumption =$10,000 - $1,000
Consumption = $9,000
Now let find the Consumption tax
Consumption tax = $9,000 × .10
Consumption tax = $900
Therefore the consumption tax is $900.
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A company that recently changed its slogan is hosting an optional company picnic. Some members of the marketing team are eating together at the picnic and sharing their thoughts on the new slogan. They find that 80\%80%80, percent of them like the new slogan.
Brand Mantra is a company that recently changed its slogan is hosting an optional company picnic
Slogans enhance marketing campaigns for particular goods, trying to boost revenue for the company. By communicating to the public what a company stands for and what it offers, a slogan can aid in fostering a relationship between a brand and the general public. Slogans employ emotion to express how a good or service might make customers feel.
Slogans help with brand awareness since they stick in people's thoughts and go beyond brand positioning. Effective slogans connect with customers, investors, employees, and other important stakeholders, fostering a sense of comfort and familiarity with a brand.
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Does increasing the money supply cause inflation or deflation?
Inflation may occur when the Federal Reserve increases the money supply. If the Federal Reserve is attempting to boost the economy by increasing the money supply.
Inflation is likely to occur, as prices will rise and the cost of goods will fluctuate.
Deflation or an increase in the money supply?Prices can also fall as a result of technological advancements and increased productivity, despite the fact that a decrease in the supply of money and credit is typically linked to deflation. The attractiveness of various investment options changes depending on whether the economy, price level, and money supply are expanding or contracting.
What happens when there is more money available?Interest rates are typically lowered when there is an increase in the money supply. This leads to more investment and more money in the hands of consumers, which in turn encourages spending. As a result, more raw materials are ordered and production is increased.
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unity point hospital system implemented a web-based system that provides the capability for suppliers to place bids and once approved, submit invoices, schedule delivery and receive payment electronically. the purchasing managers for unity point appreciate the enhanced efficiency of working with multiple vendors to obtain the various products and services needed by the unity point system of hospitals and physician offices. this web-based system is called
According to the statement the given web-based system is known as e-procurement.
What functions does e-procurement serve?Organizations can use it to automate supply chain activities with automatic notifications, enhance manufacturing cycles, keep track of total purchases made inside the firm, and expedite the procurement and tendering processes. It can also help businesses increase staff productivity.
Is e-procurement the same as e-purchasing?While procurement concentrates on strategic, lengthy goals like gaining a competitive advantage or aligning with corporate strategy or goals, purchasing concentrates on tactical, short-term goals like completing the five rights inside a money transfer (right quality, right quantity, right cost, right time, and right place).
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When air warms up, it causes water vapor to form. The amount of water vapor in the atmosphere is called.
When air warms up, it causes water vapor to form. The amount of water vapor in the atmosphere is called humidity.
Humidity is the measurement of the quantity of water vapor in the atmosphere. The temperature conditions are what determines how much water vapor or humidity is present in the air. Rain results from clouds forming, which requires humidity.
Clouds and other meteorological phenomena wouldn't exist without humidity. The ability of air to contain moisture fluctuates as a function of temperature; for example, at higher temperatures, the amount of water vapor rises, whereas, at lower temperatures, it falls. In relation to the atmospheric temperature, relative humidity measures the amount of water vapor. In other words, it measures the maximum quantity of water vapor that dry air can carry at a given temperature.
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Fill in the blanksF. Post-Audit of Investment Projects.1. Describe__________________________________________________________________________________________________________.2. Performing a post-audit is important for several reasons.a.b.c.3. A post-audit involves _________________________________________________________________________________________________.G. Internal Rate of Return (IRR).1. The internal rate of return method differs from the net present value method in that it finds the interest yield of the potential investment.a. The internal rate of return is the interest rate that will cause _______________________________________________________________b. The determination of the internal rate of return involves the use of a financial calculator or computerized spreadsheet to solve for the rate (if the cash flows are uneven).c. If the net annual cash flows are equal, an easier approach to solving for the internal rate of return can be used. This approach involves two steps:(1)(2)d. Internal Rate of Return Factor =e. Once managers know the internal rate, of return, they compare it to________________________________________________________f. The IRR decision rule is: ________________________________ ________________________________________________________.2. The two discounted cash flow methods differ as follows:a. Objective:(1)(2)b. Decision rule:(1)(2)H. Annual Rate of Return Method.1. The annual rate of return method is based directly on accounting data rather than on cash flows.a.b.c.d.e.f.g.
In financial analysis, the internal rate of return (IRR) is a statistic used to calculate the profitability of possible investments. IRR is a discount rate that, in a discounted cash flow analysis, reduces all cash flows' net present values (NPV) to zero.
The same formula is used for NPV calculations and internal rate of return IRR calculations. Remember that the project's true financial worth is not represented by the IRR. The yearly return is what brings the NPV to a negative value. Generally speaking, an investment is more favorable to make the greater the internal rate of return. IRR may be used to rate a variety of potential investments or projects on a pretty even basis because it is consistent for investments of all sorts. Generally speaking, the investment with the highest IRR would be regarded as the best when comparing choices with other similar attributes.
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Which of the following statements is incorrect about quality?
O a. Companies should focus more on preventing product failure than on fixing it.
O b. To ensure good quality, everyone takes responsibility for making sure the output meets specifications.
O c. Design quality of a product cannot be changed unless the product design is changed.
O d. Cost of quality can be calculated as the cost to manage defective products.
Who is considered the principal in an agency relationship in procurement?
O a. The sales manager
O b. The material user
O c. The supplier
O d. The purchasing manager
Option A is incorrect. Instead than resolving quality issues, businesses should put more of an emphasis on preventing product failure.
How well a product satisfies client needs, accomplishes its goal, and complies with industry norms is referred to as its quality. Businesses evaluate a number of critical elements when determining a product's quality, including whether it solves a problem, functions effectively, or serves the needs of customers.
Companies may also assess a product's quality using a range of viewpoints that illustrate how various audiences view a product's use. When evaluating a product's quality, one should take the viewpoints of the client, the manufacturer, the product, and the value of the product into consideration. The success of the business and the development of its reputation in target markets are both dependent on the quality of the products.
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