You are the first ems unit on scene of a multiple casualty incident. a crane has fallen from a building roof top and ripped through an adjacent building. what should you do according to the ics?

Answers

Answer 1

In a crane incident, the first EMS unit should establish command, assess, request resources, triage, provide care, coordinate transportation, communicate, document, and prioritize responder safety.

According to the Incident Command System (ICS) in a multiple casualty incident where a crane has fallen and caused significant damage, the first EMS unit on the scene should follow these steps:

1. Establish Command: Designate an Incident Commander (IC) who will assume overall command and coordination of the incident. The IC will be responsible for managing resources and making critical decisions.

2. Assess the Situation: Conduct a quick but thorough assessment of the scene to determine the extent of the damage, the number of casualties, and any immediate hazards that may pose a risk to responders or victims.

3. Request Additional Resources: Based on the initial assessment, request additional EMS units, fire department personnel, and other necessary resources to assist with the incident. Communicate the severity of the incident and the need for specialized equipment or personnel, such as heavy rescue teams.

4. Establish a Treatment Area: Designate a safe area within the incident scene as a triage and treatment area. This area should be clear of hazards and have sufficient space and resources to provide initial medical care to the casualties.

5. Implement Triage: Assign trained personnel to conduct triage and categorize the casualties based on the severity of their injuries. This helps prioritize treatment and transportation based on the available resources and medical needs.

6. Provide Immediate Medical Care: Begin providing immediate medical care and stabilization to the most critical casualties based on the triage assessment. Treat life-threatening injuries and initiate interventions to prevent further deterioration.

7. Coordinate Transportation: Coordinate with additional EMS units and establish transportation priorities for the casualties. Assign appropriate resources and modes of transportation based on the severity of injuries and available resources.

8. Communicate and Coordinate: Maintain regular communication with other responding agencies, such as fire department, law enforcement, and hospital personnel, to share vital information, coordinate efforts, and ensure seamless care and transportation of the casualties.

9. Document and Report: Document all assessment findings, treatment provided, and transportation decisions. Report the incident details to the appropriate authorities, such as the incident command post and hospital emergency departments, to ensure continuity of care and appropriate resource allocation.

10. Ensure Responder Safety: Continuously assess and manage risks to the safety of responders. Follow safety protocols, use personal protective equipment, and remain vigilant for changing conditions or additional hazards.

Note: The specific actions may vary depending on the organization's protocols and the nature and scale of the incident. Following the ICS framework helps establish a structured and coordinated approach to managing multiple casualty incidents.

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Related Questions


What is the purpose of an action plan?

Answers

Answer:

The purpose of an action plan is to clarify what are required to reach a goal, and there are times when specific tasks need to be completed and determine what resources are required or used.

Many people with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) wear a mask to cover their noses and mouths. Which statement
best explains the importance of the mask?
O It prevents HIV patients from catching airborne diseases.
O It prevents the spread of HIV to nearby people.
O It prevents the DNA of HIV patients from becoming faulty.
O It prevents HIV patients from becoming contagious.

Answers

The best statement is: It prevents HIV patients from catching airborne diseases.

The reason why HIV patients need to wear masks is because they have a lack of immunity, so they need to wear masks every time they go out, since bacteria and illnesses can be in the air.

in a neutralization assay, if a patient’s serum has high numbers of antiviral antibodies, what would you expect to see?

Answers

In a neutralization assay, if a patient's serum has high numbers of antiviral antibodies, you would expect to see a strong neutralizing effect on the virus being tested.

What is neutralization assay?

Specific proteins known as antiviral antibodies are created by the immune system in response to a viral infection. By recognizing and attaching to viral antigens, these antibodies stop viruses from invading host cells. In a neutralization assay, the serum of the patient is examined for its capacity to inhibit the virus's ability to infect.

High levels of antiviral antibodies in the patient's serum show that the patient has established a potent defense against the virus.

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What is the primary goal of stress management?
O to diagnose patients who have psychosomatic diseases
O to medicate patients so they cannot feel pain
O to prove to patients that their symptoms are not real
O to help patients focus on the positive aspects of life

Answers

Answer:

answer is the 4th one, to hep patients focus on the positive aspects of their life :))

Explanation:

during the assessment, the nurse observes a gray pigmented nevus on the neonate’s buttocks. the nurse documents this as which finding?

Answers

During the assessment, the nurse observes a gray-pigmented nevus on the neonate’s buttocks. The nurse documents this as a birthmark.

A birthmark is a skin marking or discoloration present at birth or appears within the first few months of a child’s life. Most birthmarks are benign and may appear anywhere on the skin. Some birthmarks appear in limited areas and some may be spread throughout the body. In some cases, birthmarks disappear over time.

The gray pigmented nevus on the neonate’s buttocks is a kind of birthmark. It is also called a Mongolian spot. This type of birthmark is more commonly observed in darker-skinned babies, and it appears as a bluish or grayish patch on the skin. It usually disappears within a few years of the child's life.

A healthcare provider can diagnose birthmarks based on visual examination. In some cases, they may use imaging tests such as ultrasound, X-ray, or MRI to examine the underlying structures of the birthmark. Biopsy may also be required if there is any suspicion of malignancy or cancerous growth.

Birthmarks are usually harmless and don't require any treatment. However, in rare cases, they may be removed for cosmetic or medical reasons. Some of the treatments used for birthmark removal include surgery, laser therapy, and medication.

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your overall body type is determined by

heredity
age
gender
activity level
no links please ​

Answers

answer:

heredity.

why?

if your parents are tall you are most likely talk and this is called heredity

Answer:

A.) Heredity

Explanation:

I'm pretty sure the body type is heredity because you inherit that from genes you get from your relatives such as your parents and so on.

Can Someone help me. ?

Answers

Answer:

B. budget cuts at the state level, force schools to do more with less money and resources.

(I'm 90% sure it's B. but it also could be A.)

B. But could be A. Yw!

What are four reasons children may be late talkers?

Answers

child could be a late bloomer or have hearing problems, developmental problems or neurological problems

how should we determine price of good​

Answers

Answer:

The price of a product is determined by the law of supply and demand

Explanation:

Consumers have a desire to acquire a product, and producers manufacture a supply to meet this demand. The equilibrium market price of a good is the price at which quantity supplied equals quantity demanded.

Hope this helped!!!

The daughter of an elderly, confused female patient reports that her mother is having urinary incontinence several times each day. What will the provider do initially?
a. Obtain a urine sample for urinalysis and possible culture
b. Order serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen tests
c. Perform a bladder scan to determine distention and retention
d. Tell the daughter that this is expected given her mother's age and confusion

Answers

Option a is correct. Initially the provider will obtain a urine sample for urinalysis and possible culture.

A urine sample can be taken in order to do a urinalysis and, in certain cases, a culture, which can assist diagnose any underlying infections or other urinary abnormalities that might be causing the incontinence.

To examine kidney function and look for any underlying renal abnormalities, ordering serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen tests is helpful.

But in this instance, dealing with the reported urinary incontinence is the main issue, so a urinalysis and culture are required to look for any infection.  Following a preliminary assessment and if urinary retention or bladder distention are a concern, a bladder scan may be performed.

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Paula Jankie was injured after she got pinned between two trolleys during an incident at Price Shoppers. The accident allegedly took place on 3rd May, 2022 as Paula was leaving the Price Shoppers warehouse with her purchased items in a trolley. She was accompanied by her six-year-old daughter and a family friend. Paula contends that she was using the travellator from the upper floor to get to the car park on the ground floor. Her trolley was securely placed on the travellator by an employee of Price Shopper and her daughter and friend stepped onto the travellator and stood behind it whilst Paula was holding onto the handle of the trolley. This was in keeping with the instructions issued to Paula by the said the employee of Price Shoppers. She further stated that the employee then proceeded to place another trolley immediately behind her. Paula indicated that soon thereafter, as she was midway along the travellator as it descended to the ground floor, the trolley immediately behind her came rolling downwards towards her. Paula's friend observed what was happening and shouted a warning to her, however, Paula was pinned in between the runaway, which was filled with items purchased by another customer of Price Shoppers and her trolley. The said runawa trolley hit Paula on her lower back and she fell to the ground. Paula also stated that there were no employees at the bottom of the travellator to assist her and her friend had to help in removing her from between the trolleys. The user of the runaway trolley asked Paula if she was okay and then left. Paula has since been hospitalized with severe back injury and cannot return to work. Advise Paula.

Answers

For Paula's situation, it is recommended to seek medical attention, document the incident and injuries, obtain witness statements, report the incident to Price Shoppers, and consult with a personal injury attorney for legal guidance and potential compensation.

In such situations, it is generally recommended for Paula to take the following steps:

1. Seek Medical Attention: Paula has already been hospitalized, but it's crucial for her to continue receiving appropriate medical care for her severe back injury. Follow the advice of healthcare professionals to ensure her well-being and recovery.

2. Document the Incident: Gather and preserve any evidence related to the incident, such as photographs of the scene, Paula's injuries, and any damaged or faulty equipment involved. Keep records of medical treatments, expenses, and any other relevant documents.

3. Obtain Witness Statements: If there were witnesses to the incident, it can be valuable to obtain their statements about what they observed. This can support Paula's version of events and strengthen her case.

4. Report the Incident: Ensure that Price Shoppers is informed about the incident and Paula's injuries. It's essential to document the incident with the store management and, if necessary, file a formal incident report. Keep a record of all interactions with Price Shoppers.

5. Consult with a Personal Injury Attorney: Paula should seek legal advice from an experienced personal injury attorney who can evaluate her case, provide guidance on the legal process, and represent her interests. The attorney can help assess liability, gather evidence, negotiate with insurance companies, and potentially pursue a legal claim for compensation for her injuries, medical expenses, lost wages, and other damages.

Remember, this is general advice, and Paula should consult with a legal professional who can provide specific guidance based on her situation and local laws.

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a nurse is caring for a client who's in labor and is receiving an epidural. which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Answers

Option D is correct. A nurse is caring for a client who's in labor and is receiving an epidural. Monitor vital signs, Maternal mobility and Pain levels actions should be taken by nurse.

Monitor vital signs: To ensure stability and identify any alterations or difficulties, the nurse should routinely check the client's blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation levels.

To make sure the epidural is sufficiently relieving the client's pain, the nurse should routinely examine the client's degree of pain. Comfort and positioning: The nurse should help the client locate and keep a comfortable position.

Assist with maternal mobility: If the doctor or nurse agrees, the patient might be urged to keep moving and take part in activities like walking or position-changing to hasten labor and feel more comfortable.

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Complete question

a nurse is caring for a client who's in labor and is receiving an epidural. which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Monitor vital signs

B. Maternal mobility

C. Pain levels

D. All of the above

Due to the structure of the circulatory system, all of the following are functions of the circulatory system except to a. transport nutrients from the esophagus to the stomach .c. transport some waste to the kidneys. b. transport blood away from the kidneys. d. transport oxygen throughout the body.

Answers

What they said .......
B. transport blood away from the kidneys

plz help
don't answer for points​

Answers

A direct effect or impact upon the body.

What causes george wilson’s sickness? what coincidence has occurred?

Answers

1. George Wilson's sickness can be seen as a manifestation of his emotional turmoil.

2. The coincidence that occurs in relation to George Wilson's sickness is the revelation of Jay Gatsby's involvement in Myrtle's death.

What is the cause of the sickness?

It is possible to interpret George Wilson's illness as a result of his emotional upheaval and extreme stress. His physical and emotional health suffered as a result of the death of his wife and the realization that she had an affair with Tom Buchanan.

The discovery of Jay Gatsby's complicity in Myrtle's death is the coincidence that surrounds George Wilson's illness. When George finds out that Myrtle was hit and killed by Gatsby's car, his rage and hopelessness grow.

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Names for cuts of game meat are different from those of meats you find in the grocery store.

True
False

Answers

Answer:

Answer is FALSE I'm 100% sure. Hope I helped you.

Explanation:

I may have diabetes and I’m scared can someone just help me out please I’m a bit worried and I don’t know what to do.

Answers

Answer:

You shouldnt be worried their's nothing to be worried about. Just stay calm and listen to what the doc said its ok everything's gonna be alright  

Explanation:

Definitely stay clam. Just go to the doctor and take in what he says and remember it’s okay

1. What is the Safe Driver Renewal Program?

Answers

The Safe Driver Renewal Program allows Illinois residents to renew their driver's license over the telephone, online or through the mail.

20 PIONTSWhich statement correctly compares individuals in earlier stages of development with those in the generativity vs. stagnation stage? Individuals in earlier stages care about romance and sex, while those in the generativity vs. stagnation stage no longer do. Individuals in earlier stages are developing their brainpower, while those in the generativity vs. stagnation stage are beginning to experience cognitive decline. Individuals in earlier stages are more reliant on the older generations, while those in the generativity vs. stagnation stage are concerned with giving to the next. Individuals in earlier stages experience more stable emotions, while those in the generativity vs. stagnation stage are prone to anxiety and depression.

Answers

Answer

Explanation:

Individuals in earlier stages are more reliant on the older generations, while those in the generativity vs. stagnation stage are concerned with giving to the next

1. The use of alcohol can
choices
an individual's ability to make safe

Answers

Answer:

The use of alcohol can diminish an individual's ability to make safe

Explanation:

Hope this helps!

Please mark me as Brainlinieast.

A patient is seen in the office complaining of severe flank pain and hematuria. The clinician should assess this patient for which risk factor for poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
A. Hypertension
B. Constipation
C. Tubal ligation
D. Diabetes

Answers

Answer:b i took the test

Explanation:

how was the medicare pps system designed to curb escalating health care costs

Answers

By providing a general fee schedule for services the medicare pps system is designed to curb escalating healthcare costs

A standardised rate schedule for Medicare services was established with the help of the Medicare Prospective Payment System (PPS), which was put into place to rein in rising medical expenses. According to the PPS, healthcare professionals are paid according to set rates for particular treatments.  Based on their diagnosis, the extent of their sickness, and other pertinent characteristics, the PPS places patients in particular DRGs. A fixed payout rate applies to each DRG.

Based on the designated DRG, Medicare pays healthcare providers a set sum for each patient's stay or course of treatment. The purpose of this fixed payment scheme is to reward efficient and economical care delivery. The PPS frequently lumps payments for associated services under a particular episode of care. For instance, payment for medical procedures, diagnostic tests, prescription drugs, and other related services may be included in a hospital stay.

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what is the formula of general fertility rare​

Answers

Answer:

CBR=b/p×1000

ASFR=b/p×1000

total fertility rate TFR=SamesionASFR×5/1000

Explanation:

hope it is helpful to you

Patient health status: Does the EHR contain the following data elements when on the Patient Profile tab of the Pharmacy section? Answer with yes (if complete) and no (if missing or incomplete). Explain your answers. Hint: These core data sets are defined on page 5 of the resource Understanding the Continuity of Care Record. (Corepoint Health, 2016) 8. Diagnoses, problems, and conditions Yes- the problem, diagnosis, and conditions data element are the main elements of a patients profile. 9. Adverse reactions and alerts list allergies by agent and symptom No, listing of sulfa only and there are no symptoms included. 10. List of current medications including name, code, dose, schedule/refill dates, prescribing provider, and comments 11. Comprehensive immunizations documentation including dates and disease identifier 12. Vital signs information, including readings and date signs were taken 13. Laboratory results information 14. Procedures/assessments information including description, dates, times, locations, and codes. 15. Health status section for optional greater details at the discretion of the provider 16. Care documentation: Does the EHR contain this data when on the Patient Profile of the Pharmacy section? Answer Yes (if all information is present) or No (if information is missing or not all information is present). Provide rationale for your answer. a. Yes

Answers

8. Yes, 9. Yes, 10. Yes, 11. Yes, 12. Yes, 13. Yes, 14. Yes, 15. Yes, 16 a) Yes.

Based on the given information from the resource "Understanding the Continuity of Care Record" by Corepoint Health (2016), here are the answers regarding the data elements in the EHR's Patient Profile tab of the Pharmacy section.

8. Diagnoses, problems, and conditions: Yes - The EHR should contain information about the patient's diagnoses, problems, and conditions. This helps provide a comprehensive view of the patient's health status and allows for appropriate medication management.

9. Adverse reactions and alerts list allergies by agent and symptom: Yes - The EHR should include an adverse reactions and alerts list that specifies allergies by agent and associated symptoms. This is essential for medication safety and preventing adverse reactions.

10. List of current medications including name, code, dose, schedule/refill dates, prescribing provider, and comments: Yes - The EHR should have a list of the patient's current medications, including details such as name, code, dose, schedule/refill dates, prescribing provider, and any relevant comments. This information assists in medication management and coordination of care.

11. Comprehensive immunizations documentation including dates and disease identifier: Yes - The EHR should contain comprehensive documentation of the patient's immunizations, including dates and disease identifiers. This helps ensure proper vaccination management and preventive care.

12. Vital signs information, including readings and date signs were taken: Yes - The EHR should include vital signs information, including the readings and the dates when the signs were taken. Vital signs provide important information about the patient's overall health status and help in monitoring their response to treatment.

13. Laboratory results information: Yes - The EHR should contain information on the patient's laboratory results. This includes test results, values, and any relevant comments or interpretations. Laboratory results assist in diagnosing and monitoring the patient's health conditions.

14. Procedures/assessments information including description, dates, times, locations, and codes: Yes - The EHR should include information about procedures and assessments, including descriptions, dates, times, locations, and codes. This helps in tracking and coordinating the patient's care and treatment.

15. Health status section for optional greater details at the discretion of the provider: Yes - The EHR may include a health status section that allows providers to add additional details as needed. This optional section provides flexibility for providers to document specific health information relevant to the patient's care.

16. Care documentation: Yes - The EHR should contain care documentation within the Patient Profile of the Pharmacy section. This documentation may include information related to medication management, interventions, care plans, or any other relevant details specific to the patient's pharmaceutical care.

a. Yes

The correct question is:

Patient health status: Does the EHR contain the following data elements when on the Patient Profile tab of the Pharmacy section? Answer with yes (if complete) and no (if missing or incomplete). Explain your answers. Hint: These core data sets are defined on page 5 of the resource Understanding the Continuity of Care Record. (Corepoint Health, 2016)

8. Diagnoses, problems, and conditions

9. Adverse reactions and alerts list allergies by agent and symptom

10. List of current medications including name, code, dose, schedule/refill dates, prescribing provider, and comments

11. Comprehensive immunizations documentation including dates and disease identifier 12. Vital signs information, including readings and date signs were taken

13. Laboratory results information

14. Procedures/assessments information including description, dates, times, locations, and codes.

15. Health status section for optional greater details at the discretion of the provider

16. Care documentation: Does the EHR contain this data when on the Patient Profile of the Pharmacy section? Answer Yes (if all information is present) or No (if information is missing or not all information is present). Provide rationale for your answer.

a. Yes

b. No

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Why be concerned with dating, courtship and marriage?

Answers

Answer:

A bit confused with the question but here is two answers.

1. Humans need affection and dating and those other steps are ways to gain affection.

2. Heartbreak and emotions are a

always a cause for concern when entering a relationship.

Explanation:

Hopefully this is the answer you were looking for lol.

Answer:

just bc . i need love to be happy lol

Explanation:

when discussing risky behaviors as part of sbirt, the health-care provider experiences the most success with longer sessions of mi.T/F

Answers

When discussing risky behaviors as part of SBIRT, the healthcare provider does not experience the most success with longer sessions of MI. This statement is FALSE.

SBIRT (Screening, Brief Intervention, and Referral to Treatment) is a preventive service used by healthcare providers to detect and address risky substance use behaviors in patients. SBIRT is designed to be implemented across various settings, including primary care, emergency departments, and behavioral health clinics, and has been shown to be effective in reducing substance use and improving health outcomes.

Motivational interviewing (MI) is a core component of SBIRT. MI is a person-centered counseling approach that aims to increase patients' motivation and confidence to change risky behaviors. It is a collaborative process that involves the healthcare provider helping patients identify their personal reasons for change and supporting them in developing and implementing a plan to achieve their goals.In terms of session length, shorter sessions of MI have been shown to be more effective in achieving behavior change than longer sessions. This is because shorter sessions are more focused and avoid overwhelming the patient with too much information or too many goals at once. Additionally, shorter sessions are more feasible for busy healthcare settings and can be easily incorporated into routine care, making them more accessible to patients

.As such, the statement that the healthcare provider experiences the most success with longer sessions of MI when discussing risky behaviors as part of SBIRT is false. Shorter, more focused sessions have been found to be more effective in achieving behavior change.

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This is a Football question. After 4 downs have passed and they have failed to make it over the 10 yards required the ball will be turned over to the ___________.

Answers

Answer:

The Ball would be handed over to the other Team

The answer is defensive team

Standard of care addresses which of the following questions?
A.
Did the clinician do the right thing at the
right time?
B.
Was effective care provided to the
patient?
C.
Was care provided safely regardless of
time frame?
D.
A and B only

Answers

The standard of care primarily addresses the questions of whether the clinician did the right thing at the right time and whether effective care was provided to the patient. These questions are encompassed by option D, "A and B only."

The standard of care refers to the level of care and treatment that a reasonably competent healthcare professional would provide in similar circumstances. It sets the benchmark for evaluating the actions and decisions of clinicians. The standard of care considers both the appropriateness and timeliness of the clinician's actions (question A) as well as the effectiveness of the care provided to the patient (question B). It focuses on whether the clinician followed established protocols, guidelines, and best practices to ensure that the patient receives the necessary care and achieves optimal outcomes.

Option D, "A and B only," correctly captures the main aspects addressed by the standard of care, as it encompasses both the evaluation of the clinician's actions and the effectiveness of the care provided.

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a patient with a history of aortic regurgitation due to rheumatic fever develops severe dyspnea, fatigue and pulmonary edema. which should the nurse anticipate

Answers

If a patient with a history of aortic regurgitation due to rheumatic fever develops severe dyspnea, fatigue, and pulmonary edema. The nurse should expect to find clinical signs of left ventricular failure as a result of pulmonary edema.

Aortic regurgitation is a condition that causes the aortic valve to malfunction, allowing blood to flow back into the left ventricle of the heart during diastole. Blood is supposed to flow from the left ventricle of the heart to the rest of the body via the aorta.

Rheumatic fever is a streptococcal infection that causes chronic heart disease in children, including valve problems. Aortic regurgitation is one of the most common complications of rheumatic fever. However, when a patient with a history of aortic regurgitation due to rheumatic fever develops severe dyspnea, fatigue, and pulmonary edema, this means the valve problem has progressed.

The backward flow of blood into the left ventricle can cause it to enlarge and weaken over time. The valve problem will cause the heart to work harder than it should, resulting in symptoms like fatigue, shortness of breath, and chest pain. Eventually, this could lead to heart failure.

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Sarah always feels left out of group activities or social events. She has become depressed and lonely. According to Maslow, which category of needs has not been fulfilled?

A)love/belonging
B)safety
C)esteem
D)physiological

Answers

the answer is love/belonging
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