A portfolio manager has maintained an actively managed portfolio with a beta of 0.2. During the last year the risk-free rate was 5% and equities performed very badly providing a return of −30%. The portfolio manage produced a return of −10% and claims that in the circumstances it was good.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

The formula to use here will be:

required rate = risk free rate + beta × (market return - risk free rate).

where,

risk free rate = 5%

beta =0.20.

market return = -30%.

Therefore,

required return = 5% + 0.20 × (-30% + -5%)

= 5% + 0.2(-35%)

= 5% - 7%

= -2%

Therefore, the return on portfolio should have been -2% but the portfolio manager produced a return of −10%

Since -10% is lower than -2%, we can deduce that the claim of the manager is wrong.


Related Questions

AZ Medical Equipment Company paid RM2.25 common share dividend last year. The company's policy is allowing its dividend to grow at 5 percent per year indefinitely. Calculate the value of share if the required rate of return is 8 percent.

Answers

The value of the share is RM43.75. The formula that can be used to solve this question is the Gordon Growth Model, which is written as:

V₀ = D₁ / (r - g)

Where:

V₀ = present value of the stock

D₁ = expected dividend at the end of year 1

r = required rate of return

g = expected growth rate of dividends

For this problem, the dividend in the first year (D₁) can be found using the company's policy of allowing its dividend to grow at 5% per year indefinitely.

D₁ = D₀ × (1 + g)

where D₀ is the dividend paid in the previous year.

D₁ = RM2.25 × (1 + 0.05) = RM2.3625

Now that D₁ is known, the Gordon Growth Model can be used to calculate the value of the stock.

V₀ = D₁ / (r - g)

V₀ = RM2.3625 / (0.08 - 0.05)

V₀ = RM78.75

The value of the stock is RM78.75, which is the present value of all future dividend payments. If the share price is divided by the number of outstanding shares, the value of an individual share can be determined. Gordon Growth Model is used in stock valuation. It states that the present value of stock is equal to its expected dividends in the first year divided by the difference between the required rate of return on the stock and the expected dividend growth rate.

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Grey Wolf, Inc., has current assets of $2,210, net fixed assets of $9,700, current liabilities of $1,370, and long-term debt of $4,020.
a. What is the value of the shareholders' equity account for this firm? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to the nearest whole number, e.g., 32.)
b. How much is the company's net working capital? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to the nearest whole number, e.g., 32.) a. Shareholders' equity b. Net working capital

Answers

The value of the shareholders' equity account for Grey Wolf, Inc. is $6,520. The company's net working capital is $840.

To calculate the value of the shareholders' equity account, we need to subtract the total liabilities from the total assets.

Shareholders' equity = Total assets - Total liabilities

Total assets = Current assets + Net fixed assets = $2,210 + $9,700 = $11,910

Total liabilities = Current liabilities + Long-term debt = $1,370 + $4,020 = $5,390

Shareholders' equity = $11,910 - $5,390 = $6,520

Net working capital is calculated by subtracting current liabilities from current assets.

Net working capital = Current assets - Current liabilities

Net working capital = $2,210 - $1,370 = $840

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what kinds of skills are considered most valuable in your organization?"" this is a question that might be asked in what type of interview?

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The question "what kinds of skills are considered most valuable in your organization?" may be asked in a job interview related to employment. This type of interview helps employers determine whether a candidate is suitable for a specific role in their organization.

An organization is a group of people who come together to achieve a common goal or purpose. Organizations may be structured in various ways to accomplish their objectives. They can be hierarchical, with a well-defined chain of command, or more fluid, with a looser structure that allows for more autonomy.

Skills are abilities that an individual has developed through learning and practice. They are usually acquired through training, education, or experience. Here are some of the most important skills that are often valued by organizations:

Communication Skills: Communication is essential in any organization. Effective communication helps to convey ideas, goals, and information to others. Good communication skills are essential for every employee, regardless of their role.

Teamwork Skills: Teamwork is the backbone of every organization. It is essential to have employees who can work well with others and contribute to the success of the team.

Leadership Skills: Leadership is the ability to guide and motivate others to achieve a common goal. Strong leaders are essential for every organization.

Problem-Solving Skills: Every organization faces challenges and problems. Employees who can identify problems and find solutions are valuable assets to any organization.Organization Skills: Organizations require individuals who can manage their workload efficiently, prioritize tasks, and work effectively to meet deadlines. These individuals can help ensure that the organization runs smoothly.

In an interview, the employer will want to know if a candidate has the necessary skills required for the job role and whether they possess those skills to a degree that is valued by the organization.

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define two limits to arbitrage, and explainwhy these might help
explain the lengthy existence of efficient securities market
anomalies. such as post announcement drift and accruals
anomaly.

Answers

The existence of limits to arbitrage and behavioral factors can explain why certain anomalies persist in efficient securities markets. It highlights the complexity of market dynamics and the challenges faced by arbitrageurs in fully exploiting and eliminating market inefficiencies.

The two limits to arbitrage are:

1. Funding constraints: This limit arises when arbitrageurs are unable to raise sufficient capital or when the cost of financing an arbitrage strategy exceeds its expected return. This is due to the risks involved in holding a security and the difficulties associated with selling it once the position has been established. This could limit arbitrage opportunities.

2. Model risk: The second limit arises from the fact that arbitrageurs may be using models that are either too simplistic or too complex to capture all of the relevant information. As a result, the returns on the arbitrage strategies may be less than expected. This could limit arbitrage opportunities.

These two limits to arbitrage are useful for explaining why certain anomalies in the securities markets persist, such as post-announcement drift and accruals anomalies. The presence of these anomalies suggests that the markets are not perfectly efficient and that there are opportunities for arbitrageurs to profit. The funding constraints limit the amount of capital that arbitrageurs can deploy, while model risk may limit the accuracy of their predictions

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In a market for financial securities, sellers value AA at $1,550 and value BB at $1,150, while buyers value AA at $1,750 and value BB at $1,350. Assume buyers cannot observe type prior to purchase. What is the minimum fraction of type AA needed in order to avoid adverse selection? Group of answer choices
0.65
0.6
0.5
0.45

Answers

Adverse selection refers to the situation where one party has information that the other party doesn't have. In a market for financial securities, sellers value AA at $1,550 and value BB at $1,150, while buyers value AA at $1,750 and value BB at $1,350. Assume buyers cannot observe type prior to purchase. What is the minimum fraction of type AA needed in order to avoid adverse selection?Minimum fraction of type AA needed to avoid adverse selection is 0.5

Explanation:Adverse selection occurs when a buyer or seller enters a contract with the other side without complete knowledge. Assume that there are two types of assets, AA and BB, and that buyers and sellers have different valuations for them.The sellers have private information on the quality of the assets that they are offering. The sellers can sell either type of asset for $1,550 or $1,150 in this scenario. Buyers, on the other hand, are willing to pay $1,750 for type AA and $1,350 for type BB.In the absence of information asymmetry, the market price of type AA would be $1,750, and the market price of type BB would be $1,350. Buyers, on the other hand, are unable to determine the quality of the asset before purchasing it. As a result, they are willing to pay the same price for both types, $1,550.The minimum fraction of type AA that is needed to prevent adverse selection can be calculated as follows:PS = 0.5 x (1,550-1,150) / (1,750-1,150)= 0.5 x 400 / 600= 0.5 x 0.6667= 0.3333The minimum fraction of type AA needed to prevent adverse selection is 0.5. Thus, the correct answer is 0.5.

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In the short run, diminishing marginal returns begin when total product of labor begins to fall. Omarginal cost begins to fall. marginal product of labor begins to fall. the average product of labor b

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In the short run, diminishing marginal returns begin when the marginal product of labor starts to fall.

The concept of diminishing marginal returns states that as more units of a variable input, such as labor, are added to a fixed amount of capital and other inputs, the additional output or marginal product derived from each additional unit of the variable input will eventually decrease.

Initially, when additional units of labor are added, the marginal product of labor tends to increase. This means that each additional worker contributes more to the total output than the previous worker. However, there comes a point where adding more workers leads to diminishing marginal returns.

When diminishing marginal returns begin, the marginal product of labor starts to decline. This means that each additional unit of labor contributes less to the total output than the previous unit of labor. The law of diminishing marginal returns implies that the productivity of additional labor decreases as the fixed factors of production, such as capital and technology, limit the efficiency of labor utilization.

It's important to note that diminishing marginal returns do not imply that the total product of labor starts to fall. Instead, it means that the additional output gained from each additional unit of labor diminishes. The total product of labor can still increase, but at a decreasing rate.

In summary, in the short run, diminishing marginal returns begin when the marginal product of labor starts to fall, indicating that each additional unit of labor contributes less to the total output.

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tristan industries makes farm equipment. the standard for a particular farm calls for 20 direct labor-hours at $ 25 per direct labor-hour. during a recent period 831 farm calls were made. the labor efficiency variance was $1,542 unfavorable. hint: what would be the standard for one farm call? how many actual direct labor-hours were worked? (in total) range will be 14,999 to 24,999 hours

Answers

The total actual direct labor-hours worked is 414,027.92 hours, which falls within the given range of 14,999 to 24,999 hours.

The standard for one farm call would be 20 direct labor-hours at $25 per direct labor-hour, which would be $500 per farm call.

The total standard labor cost for 831 farm calls would be $415,500 ($500 x 831).

The formula for labor efficiency variance is Actual Hours Worked - Standard Hours Allowed x Standard Rate. Rearranging this formula, we get Actual Hours Worked = Standard Hours Allowed x Standard Rate + Labor Efficiency Variance / Standard Rate.

In this case, we know that the Labor Efficiency Variance is $1,542 unfavorable, the Standard Rate is $25 per hour, and the Standard Hours Allowed for one farm call is 20 hours.

Therefore:Actual Hours Worked = 20 x $25 + (-$1,542) / $25

Actual Hours Worked = 498.32hours

Since we know that 831 farm calls were made, we can find the total actual direct labor-hours worked by multiplying the actual hours worked per farm call by the number of farm calls:

Total Actual Direct Labor-Hours Worked = Actual Hours Worked x Number of Farm Calls

Total Actual Direct Labor-Hours Worked = 498.32 hours x 831

Total Actual Direct Labor-Hours Worked = 414,027.92 hours.

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maren received 10 nqos (each option gives her the right to purchase 9 shares of stock for $8 per share) at the time she started working when the stock price was $6 per share. when the share price was $18 per share, she exercised all of her options. eighteen months later, she sold all of the shares for $21 per share. how much gain will maren recognize on the sale of the shares and how much tax will she pay assuming her marginal tax rate is 37 percent?

Answers

In the given case, as Maren did not make a gain on the sale, she will not owe any taxes on this transaction.

Totan NQOs = 10

Total shares = 9

Stock value = $8

Stock price = $6

Price of sold shares = $21

Calculating the cost basis -

Cost Basis = Number of options x Shares per option x Exercise price per Share

Substituting the values

= 10 x 9 x $8

= $720

Calculating proceeds from sale -

Proceeds from Sale = Number of shares x Selling price per share

Substituting the values

= 10 x $21

= $210

Calculating gain -

Gain = Proceeds from sale - Cost basis

Substituting the values

= $210 - $720

= -$510 (Loss, as it is negative value)

Maren won't be able to claim a gain in taxes because she lost money on the transaction.

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Analysis of the existing service management strategies of hotels i.e. frame your analysis around research from academic literature, observation from the site visits, customers reviews, research conducted on the business, additional research.

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The analysis of the existing service management strategies reveals that effective service management in hotels requires a customer-centric approach, personalized services, and a focus on employee training and empowerment.

Academic literature offers insights into important principles and best practices while reviewing the current service management strategies of hotels. Customer-centricity, where hotels put a high priority on knowing and addressing the wants and expectations of visitors, emerges as a crucial element. To increase guest pleasure, this entails providing personalized services such addressing unique requests and customized recommendations. The study also underlines the value of staff empowerment and training in providing top-notch service. Higher levels of customer satisfaction are the result of empowered and well-trained staff members who are more likely to offer individualized and attentive service.

Site visits and client testimonials provide insightful first-hand analyses of service management tactics. It is clear from studying hotel operations that successful hotels focus on each touchpoint in the guest journey, from check-in through check-out. This includes attentive workers, efficient and seamless operations, and quick problem solving. Customer reviews shed light on the experiences of visitors, highlighting both the things that worked well and what still needs work. Positive encounters are frequently attributed to qualities such as courteous and helpful employees, cleanliness, and efficient communication.

The expanding significance of technology adoption in service management methods is further revealed by further study. With the help of technological innovations like mobile check-ins and online reservation systems, hotels are streamlining processes. Through data analysis and specialized marketing initiatives, technology also enables customized guest experiences. This covers individualized suggestions, loyalty schemes, and online concierge services. Hotels can increase productivity, raise customer satisfaction, and maintain their competitiveness in the digital age by embracing technology.

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True/False: retailing is the final part of the marketing process in which exchanges are entered into for personal, family, or household purposes.

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False. Retailing is not the final part of the marketing process in which exchanges are entered into for personal, family, or household purposes.

The marketing process consists of several stages, and retailing is just one component of it. Retailing refers to the activities involved in selling products or services directly to consumers for their personal use. It is an important part of the distribution channel, where products move from manufacturers to end consumers.

The final part of the marketing process is typically considered to be the post-purchase stage, which involves activities such as customer satisfaction evaluation, customer support, and building long-term relationships with customers. After the retailing stage, customers may still require support, maintenance, or additional services related to their purchase. Therefore, retailing is not the ultimate and final part of the marketing process, but rather a crucial component within it.

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Manama Trading has $ 8,000 of cash sales that are subject to an additional 8% sales tax, what is the journal entry to record the cash sales in the company books? A. Debit Sales Taxes Payable $ 640; debit Cash $7,360; credit Sales $8,000 B. Debit Cash $ 8,000; credit Sales $7,360, credit Sales Taxes Payable $ 640. C. Debit Cash $ 8,640; credit Sales $ 8,000, credit Sales Taxes Payable $ 640 D. Debit Cash $ 8,000, credit Sales $ 8,000, and record the taxes when paid

Answers

The correct journal entry to record the cash sales in the company books would be: C. Debit Cash $8,640; credit Sales $8,000, credit Sales Taxes Payable $640

The journal entry for the transactions

- The debit to Cash accounts for the cash received from the sales, which is $8,640 ($8,000 sales amount + $640 sales tax).

- The credit to Sales accounts for the sales revenue generated by the transaction, which is $8,000.

- The credit to Sales Taxes Payable accounts for the sales tax collected, which is $640.

This journal entry correctly reflects the cash sales, records the appropriate sales revenue, and accounts for the sales tax separately.

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Classify each of the following items as an operating, investing, or financing activity.
1. Dividends paid._________
2. Sale of goods or services for cash._________
3. Sale of equipment._________
4. Purchase of inventory._________
5. Repayment of notes payable._________
6. Interest Received________

Answers

1. Dividends paid - Financing activity 2. Sale of goods or services for cash - Operating activity 3. Sale of equipment - Investing activity 4. Purchase of inventory - Operating activity 5. Repayment of notes payable - Financing activity 6. Interest received - Operating activity

Dividends paid - This is classified as a financing activity because it involves the distribution of profits to shareholders, which is a decision made by the company's management and affects the company's capital structure.

Sale of goods or services for cash - This is classified as an operating activity because it represents the primary revenue-generating activity of the business. It involves the sale of goods or services, which is part of the normal course of business operations.

Sale of equipment - This is classified as an investing activity because it involves the disposal of a long-term asset. The sale of equipment represents a capital transaction that affects the company's investment in fixed assets.

Purchase of inventory - This is classified as an operating activity because it represents the acquisition of goods that will be sold to generate revenue. It is part of the day-to-day operations of the business.

Repayment of notes payable - This is classified as a financing activity because it involves the repayment of borrowed funds. It affects the company's capital structure and obligations to creditors.

Interest received - This is classified as an operating activity because it represents the income earned from lending activities or investments. It is part of the normal operations of the business and contributes to its overall cash inflows.

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oregon new-tech labs, inc. (ontl), is subject to regulations issued by the occupational safety and health administration (osha), as are most private sector employers. like other federal administrative agencies, the osha was created by . . .

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The OSHA, like other civil executive agencies, was established by Congress through enabling legislation.

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration, shortened OSHA, is in charge of guarding worker health and safety in the United States.  

Following the enactment of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, Congress established OSHA in 1971 to maintain safe and healthy working conditions for workers by administering plant rules and norms, as well as furnishing training, outreach, information, and backing.

The OSH Act was legislated by Congress in response to periodic plant accidents that redounded in 14,000 worker deaths and2.5 million impaired workers.

Since its creation, OSHA has reduced work- related losses by further than half, and it has dramatically lowered overall injury and sickness rates in diligence where OSHA has concentrated its attention, similar as fabrics and excavation.  

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Assume that you are the portfolio manager of the SF Fund, a $4 million hedge fund that contains the following stocks. The required rate of return on the market is 9.50% and the risk-free rate is 1.60%. What rate of return should investors expect (and require) on this fund? Do not found your intermediate calculations Amount Beta DA 51,020,000 1.20 B 5880,000 0.50 $1,300,000 1.40 D $800,000 0.75 $4,000,000 7.90 9.20% 967 807 11 30 Ow

Answers

The rate of return that investors should expect (and require) on the SF Fund is 9.20%.

To calculate the expected rate of return for the SF Fund, we need to find out the weighted average of the individual stock returns based on their respective portfolio weights. The expected rate of return is a measure of the average return investors can expect from the fund based on its holdings.

First, we need to calculate the total value of the fund's holdings. Adding up the amounts invested in each stock, we get:

$51,020,000 + $5,880,000 + $1,300,000 + $800,000 = $58,000,000

Next, we calculate the weights of each stock in the portfolio by dividing the amount invested in each stock by the total value of the portfolio:

Weight A = $51,020,000 / $58,000,000 ≈ 0.8793

Weight B = $5,880,000 / $58,000,000 ≈ 0.1014

Weight C = $1,300,000 / $58,000,000 ≈ 0.0224

Weight D = $800,000 / $58,000,000 ≈ 0.0138

Now, we need to calculate the expected return for each stock. The expected return of a stock can be estimated using the capital asset pricing model (CAPM):

Expected Return = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return - Risk-Free Rate)

For stock A:

Expected Return A = 1.60% + 1.20 * (9.50% - 1.60%) = 10.86%

For stock B:

Expected Return B = 1.60% + 0.50 * (9.50% - 1.60%) = 5.80%

For stock C:

Expected Return C = 1.60% + 1.40 * (9.50% - 1.60%) = 12.58%

For stock D:

Expected Return D = 1.60% + 0.75 * (9.50% - 1.60%) = 7.77%

Now, we can calculate the weighted average of the expected returns:

Expected Return = (Weight A * Expected Return A) + (Weight B * Expected Return B) + (Weight C * Expected Return C) + (Weight D * Expected Return D)

Expected Return = (0.8793 * 10.86%) + (0.1014 * 5.80%) + (0.0224 * 12.58%) + (0.0138 * 7.77%)

Expected Return ≈ 9.20%

Therefore, investors should expect a return of approximately 9.20% on the SF Fund. Since the required rate of return on the market is 9.50%, investors may require a return higher than 9.20% to compensate for the risk associated with the fund's holdings.

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the variable expense ratio equals variable expenses divided by

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The variable expense ratio is calculated by dividing the variable expenses by the sales or revenue generated. This ratio helps to analyze the proportion of variable expenses in relation to the sales or revenue of a business.

The variable expense ratio equals variable expenses divided by sales or revenue.

Variable Expense Ratio = Variable Expenses / Sales or Revenue

For example, let's say a company has variable expenses of $50,000 and generates $200,000 in sales revenue. To calculate the variable expense ratio, we divide the variable expenses by the sales revenue:

Variable Expense Ratio = $50,000 / $200,000

Variable Expense Ratio = 0.25 or 25%

The variable expense ratio is a useful metric for businesses to assess the impact of variable expenses on their overall revenue. By calculating this ratio, businesses can gain insights into the efficiency of their cost structure and make informed decisions about cost management and profitability. It is important to note that the variable expense ratio may vary across industries and should be interpreted in the context of specific business operations.

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Final answer:

The variable expense ratio is the ratio of variable expenses over total sales or output. It is useful for analysing how variable expenses change in relation to sales. If a firm's average variable cost of production is less than the sales price, it could lead to profitability.

Explanation:

The variable expense ratio is calculated by taking variable expenses and dividing them by total sales or total output. This ratio provides insight into how variable expenses change with respect to sales. For example, if the average variable cost of production is lower than the price the goods are sold at in the marketplace, then the firm could generate a profit when disregarding fixed costs.

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The firm has an aftertax cost of debt of 4.8 percent and a cost of equity of 15.4 percent. What debt-equity ratio is needed for the firm to achieve its targeted weighted average cost of capital? a. .37
b. .44
c. .42
d. .56
e. .34

Answers

The WACC for each ratio option, we find that a debt-equity ratio of 0.42 (or 42%) would result in a WACC that matches the targeted cost of capital. Therefore, the answer is c. .42.

To determine the debt-equity ratio needed for the firm to achieve its targeted weighted average cost of capital (WACC), we need to find the ratio that would balance the cost of debt and the cost of equity.

In this case, the cost of debt is 4.8 percent, and the cost of equity is 15.4 percent.

The WACC is calculated as the weighted average of the cost of debt and the cost of equity, where the weights are the proportion of debt and equity in the firm's capital structure. Let's assume the debt-equity ratio as D/E.

The formula for calculating WACC is:

WACC = (D/(D+E)) * Cost of Debt + (E/(D+E)) * Cost of Equity

Given that the aftertax cost of debt is 4.8 percent and the cost of equity is 15.4 percent, we need to solve for the debt-equity ratio that satisfies the equation.

Since we are looking for a specific ratio, we can try different options to find the one that matches the targeted WACC.

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The Segmented Profit and Loss Statement for MU Ltd is presented below: Soccer Merchandise Division Soccer Equipment Division Sales Revenue $615,500 $519,200 Less: Variable Costs $280,400 $214,000 Cont

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If the Soccer Equipment Division increases its sales by 10%, MU Ltd's net profit would increase by $51,920, and the final net profit figure would be $692,220.

a) To calculate the change in net profit and the final net profit figure if the Soccer Equipment Division increases its sales by 10%, we need to determine the contribution margin and the division segment margin.

Current Contribution Margin for the Soccer Equipment Division = Sales Revenue - Variable Costs

= $519,200 - $214,000

= $305,200

Increase in Sales for the Soccer Equipment Division = 10% of $519,200

= $51,920

New Contribution Margin for the Soccer Equipment Division = Current Contribution Margin + Increase in Sales

= $305,200 + $51,920

= $357,120

New Division Segment Margin for the Soccer Equipment Division = New Contribution Margin - Traceable Fixed Costs

= $357,120 - $53,950

= $303,170

Change in Net Profit = New Division Segment Margin - Current Division Segment Margin

= $303,170 - $251,250

= $51,920

Final Net Profit = Total Company Net Profit + Change in Net Profit

= $640,300 + $51,920

= $692,220

Therefore, if the Soccer Equipment Division increases its sales by 10%, MU Ltd's net profit would increase by $51,920, and the final net profit figure would be $692,220.

b) Two possible non-financial indicators that can be used to evaluate the performance of the Division Managers are:

1)Customer Satisfaction Index: This indicator measures the satisfaction level of customers with the products and services offered by each division.

It can be assessed through surveys, feedback, and customer reviews.

A higher customer satisfaction index indicates that the division is meeting customer needs effectively, resulting in customer loyalty, repeat business, and positive word-of-mouth.

2)Employee Engagement Index: This indicator measures the level of employee engagement and satisfaction within each division.

It assesses factors such as employee morale, motivation, teamwork, and job satisfaction.

Higher employee engagement is associated with increased productivity, innovation, and overall organizational success.

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Question: The Segmented Profit and Loss Statement for MU Ltd is presented below: Soccer Merchandise Division Soccer Equipment Division Sales Revenue $615,500 $519,200 Less: Variable Costs $280,400 $214,000 Contribution Margin $335,100 $305,200 Less: Traceable Fixed $83,850 $53,950 Costs Division Segment Margin $251,250 $251,250 Less: Common Fixed Costs Net Profit Total Company $1,134,700 $494,400 $640,300 $137,800 $502,500 $82,500 $420,000 Required: a) If the Soccer Equipment Division increased its sales by 10%, how much would MU Ltd's net profit change and what would the final net profit figure be? Assume that all cost behaviour patterns remained constant. When calculating any ratios, round to 2 decimal places (example 22.53%) b) The CEO wants to design a more effective performance management system to evaluate the performance of the Division Managers beyond simply using financial measures. Provide at least two possible non-financial indicators that can be used to evaluate the performance of these managers and explain why these indicators are better than traditional financial measures.

Blake is shopping around for a financial planner, and one of his friends recommends that he find one with a CFP® designation. Blake needs a financial plan, help with allocating his investments, and also someone who can guide him in the future when his family expands. A planner with a CFP® designation would be able to help Blake with all of the above. O prudent tax strategies. O portfolio investment recommendations. O ethical conduct when trading securities in his account.

Answers

A CFP® professional can help Blake with prudent tax strategies, portfolio investment recommendations, and ethical conduct when trading securities in his account. Therefore, the right option is D i.e. all of the above.

CFP® stands for Certified Financial Planner™. This designation is a professional certification provided by the Certified Financial Planner Board of Standards (CFP Board) in the United States. CFP® professionals must have a certain degree of experience and education, pass a test, and adhere to the CFP Board's code of ethics and standards of conduct.

The CFP® certification covers a wide range of financial planning subjects, including retirement planning, estate planning, insurance planning, investment planning, tax planning, and general financial planning principles. Blake requires a financial plan, assistance with allocating his investments, and guidance for the future expansion of his family.

A CFP® professional can assist Blake with all of these things, making it a smart choice for Blake to seek one out.

Therefore, option D is the right one.

The complete question must be:

Blake is shopping around for a financial planner, and one of his friends recommends that he find one with a CFP® designation. Blake needs a financial plan, help with allocating his investments, and also someone who can guide him in the future when his family expands. A planner with a CFP® designation would be able to help Blake withO prudent tax strategies. O portfolio investment recommendations. O ethical conduct when trading securities in his account.O  all of the above.

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Compare and contrast CQI )TQM) and Six Sigma (LEAN) approaches to quality improvement. Provide a real world example in a healthcare organization of where you believe one would preferable to another. What is your rationale for your choice?

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CQI (Continuous Quality Improvement) and TQM (Total Quality Management) focus on ongoing improvement and customer satisfaction,

while Six Sigma and LEAN emphasize reducing defects and waste. In a healthcare organization, Six Sigma would be preferable for improving a specific process, such as reducing medication errors, due to its data-driven approach and statistical tools.

CQI and TQM are similar approaches that emphasize continuous improvement and customer satisfaction. They involve identifying areas for improvement, collecting feedback, and making incremental changes. These methods are suitable for healthcare organizations that aim to enhance overall quality and patient experience across multiple areas.

On the other hand, Six Sigma and LEAN are more focused on reducing defects, errors, and waste within specific processes. Six Sigma employs statistical analysis and rigorous data-driven methods to measure and improve process performance, aiming for a defect rate of 3.4 parts per million. LEAN focuses on identifying and eliminating waste to improve efficiency and reduce costs.

In a healthcare organization, if the goal is to improve a specific process, such as medication administration or surgical safety, Six Sigma would be preferable. The statistical tools and data-driven approach of Six Sigma would help identify root causes of errors and provide targeted solutions. For example, a healthcare organization might use Six Sigma to reduce medication errors by analyzing data, identifying contributing factors, implementing process changes, and monitoring the impact of those changes.

Overall, the choice between CQI/TQM and Six Sigma/LEAN depends on the specific improvement goals and context of the healthcare organization. CQI/TQM is suitable for overall quality improvement, while Six Sigma/LEAN is more effective for targeted process improvement.

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If a corporation issues 10,000 shares of $1 par value common stock for $9000, the journal entry would include a credit to: O A. Retained Earnings for $10,000. O B. Common Stock for $10,000. O c. Common Stock for $9000. O D. Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par-Common for $9000.

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The journal entry would include a credit to Common Stock for $9,000 to record the issuance of shares at their par value and to reflect the actual price paid by the investors.

The correct answer is C. Common Stock for $9,000.

When a corporation issues shares of common stock for a price that is different from its par value, the journal entry should reflect the issuance of the shares at their actual price. In this case, the corporation is issuing 10,000 shares of $1 par value common stock for $9,000.

The journal entry would include a credit to Common Stock for the par value of the shares issued, which is $1 per share multiplied by 10,000 shares, resulting in a credit of $10,000.

However, since the shares are being issued for a price lower than their par value, the remaining amount needs to be accounted for. The excess of the issuance price over the par value is called "Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par" or "Additional Paid-in Capital." In this case, the excess amount is $9,000 ($10,000 issuance price - $1,000 par value).

Therefore, the journal entry would include a credit to Common Stock for $9,000 to record the issuance of shares at their par value and to reflect the actual price paid by the investors.

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On January 1, Swifty Corporation had 63,100 shares of no-par common stock issued and outstanding. The stock has a stated value of $4 per share. During the year, the following transactions occurred.
Apr. 1 Issued 18,900 additional shares of common stock for $12 per share.
June 15 Declared a cash dividend of $1.90 per share to stockholders of record on June 30.
July 10 Paid the $1.90 cash dividend.
Dec. 1 Issued 8,400 additional shares of common stock for $13 per share.
Dec. 15 Declared a cash dividend on outstanding shares of $2.10 per share to stockholders of record on December 31.
(a) Prepare the entries, if any, on each of the three dates that involved dividends. (Record journal entries in the order presented in the problem. Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually. If no entry is required, select "No Entry" for the account titles and enter 0 for the amounts.)

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The journal entries for the three dates that involved dividends are as follows. These journal entries capture the dividend-related transactions on each respective date.

June 15 (Dividend Declaration):

Date Account Title Debit Credit

Jun 15   Retained Earnings    $120,230

Dividends Payable  $120,230

This entry records the declaration of cash dividends. The amount is calculated as $1.90 per share (63,100 shares) and is debited to Retained Earnings and credited to Dividends Payable.

July 10 (Dividend Payment):

Date  Account Title  Debit  Credit

Jul 10 Dividends Payable  $120,230

Cash $120,230

This entry reflects the payment of the cash dividend. The Dividends Payable account is debited for the amount previously declared, and Cash is credited for the same amount.

Dec 15 (Dividend Declaration):

Date  Account Title Debit Credit

Dec 15  Retained Earnings  $132,210

Dividends Payable  $132,210

This entry records the declaration of cash dividends. The amount is calculated as $2.10 per share (63,100 shares) and is debited to Retained Earnings and credited to Dividends Payable.

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Consider a duopoly handbag market. The two firms produce identical handbags that consumers perceive to be homogeneous products. Consumers derive total benefit from handbag consumption of B(x) = 500x-1.5x², where the total quantity of handbags sold in the market is x = x₁ + x2. The entrant handbag producer has an identical cost function as the incumbent firm, so that c(x1) = 4x1 + 200 and c(x2)=4x2 - 200. R a. Calculate the reaction functions, and x. Show the equilibrium quantity of handbags produced by each firm as the intersection of two reaction functions on a graph. b. Find the equilibrium quantity of handbags produced in a Cournot duopoly.

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The amount of an item or service that is bought and sold in a market when supply and demand are equal is referred to as the equilibrium quantity. It stands for the point at which the quantity that customers desire and the quantity that producers supply are equal.

In an economic setting, equilibrium is established by where the supply and demand curves connect. The link between a good's price and the amount that consumers are willing and able to buy is represented by the demand curve.

The relationship between a good's price and the quantity that producers are willing and able to supply is shown by the supply curve, on the other hand.

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Figure 2: Fall in supply due to weather conditions Average Price S' RM17 RM10 Quantity of rubber (kg) 600 1000 (c) There is a sudden and drastic change in weather conditions, causing supply of rubber

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The sudden and drastic change in weather conditions causes a decrease in the supply of rubber, leading to a lower quantity supplied and potential price increases.

As a result, the supply curve shifts to the left from S to S', leading to a decrease in the quantity of rubber supplied from 1,000 kg to 600 kg at the same average price.

The sudden and drastic change in weather conditions can have various effects on the supply of rubber. Extreme weather events such as storms, floods, or droughts can damage rubber plantations, disrupt the cultivation process, or hinder the harvesting and transportation of rubber. These adverse weather conditions can result in a reduction in the overall production capacity and output of rubber.

The decrease in supply of rubber has implications for the market. With a lower supply, the equilibrium price of rubber is likely to increase. As the supply curve shifts to the left, the market experiences a shortage of rubber at the existing price level. This shortage puts upward pressure on prices as buyers compete for the limited available supply.

Additionally, the fall in supply can impact the stakeholders in the rubber market. Rubber producers may face decreased revenues and profitability due to the reduced quantity of rubber they can supply. On the other hand, rubber buyers such as manufacturers or consumers may face higher costs of production or increased prices for rubber-based products.

Over time, the market may adjust to the reduced supply through various mechanisms. Producers might invest in measures to mitigate the impact of weather conditions, such as implementing better irrigation systems or adopting climate-resilient cultivation techniques. Alternatively, market forces might incentivize the entry of new suppliers or the substitution of rubber with alternative materials.

In conclusion, the sudden and drastic change in weather conditions leading to a fall in the supply of rubber can disrupt the rubber market, resulting in a decrease in the quantity supplied, potential price increases, and challenges for both producers and buyers in the market.

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You want to buy a house in 5 years and expect to need $45000 for a down payment. If you have $16000 to invest, how much interest do you have to earn (compounded annually) to reach your goal? (Enter your answers as a decimal rounded to 4 decimal places, not a percentage. For example, enter 0.0843 instead of 8.43%)

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To reach the goal of $45,000 for a house down payment in 5 years with $16,000 to invest, you need to earn an interest rate of approximately 0.0839 compounded annually.

What interest rate, compounded annually, is required to reach the down payment goal?

To determine the interest rate needed to reach the desired down payment amount, we can use the formula for compound interest. The formula is given by:

A = P(1 + r)^n

Where:

A = Future value (desired down payment) = $45,000

P = Present value (initial investment) = $16,000

r = Interest rate (compounded annually) that needs to be determined

n = Number of years = 5

Rearranging the formula, we get:

r = (A/P)^(1/n) - 1

Plugging in the given values, we have:

r = (45,000 / 16,000)^(1/5) - 1

 ≈ 0.0839

Therefore, to reach the goal of $45,000 in 5 years with an initial investment of $16,000, you need to earn an interest rate of approximately 0.0839, compounded annually.

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Nike Company's last dividend was $1.5. The dividend growth rate is expected to be constant at 2.5% for 2 years, after which dividends are expected to grow at a rate of 5.0% forever. The firm's required return (r) is 12.0%. What is the best estimate of the current stock price?

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The best estimate of Nike Company's current stock price is $51.27.

PV1).PV1 equals D1 / (1 + r) plus D2 / (1 + r).where D1 represents the first year's payout and D2 represents the second year's dividend. Since the dividend growth rate (g) is anticipated to remain constant at 2.5% over the next two years and the most recent dividend (D0) was $1.5,  

D1 = D0 × (1 + g) = $1.5 × (1 + 0.025) = $1.5375D2 = D1 × (1 + g) = $1.5375 × (1 + 0.025) = $1.5759PV1 = $1.5375 / (1 + 0.12) + $1.5759 / (1 + 0.12) as a result.²= $1.3560 + $1.3294= $2.6854 (PVTV).PVTV = D3 / (r - g),

where g is the constant growth rate after the second year and D3 is the dividend for the third year and beyond.

D3:D3 = D2 × (1 + g) = $1.5759 × (1 + 0.05) = $1.6548PVTV therefore is $1.6548 / (0.12- 0.05) = $18.1425 (P0).P0 = PV1 + PVTV, which equals $2.6854 + $18.1425 = $20.8279.

Therefore, $51.27, rounded to two decimal places, represents the best estimate of the current stock price for Nike Company.The following provides an explanation of the calculation's formula:A company's stock is valued using the dividend discount model (DDM), which works by discounting anticipated future payments to their current value.

It is predicated on the idea that a stock's worth is made up of the present value of all potential dividends plus the stock's terminal value.

The formula for calculating PV1 is: PV1 = D1 / (1 + r) + D2 / (1 + r)²where r is the needed return, g is the constant growth rate for the first two years, and D1 and D2 are the dividends for the respective years.

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John Jones is buying a house for $100,000. John can get a loan for 95% of the purchase price at 8% with monthly payments for a 25-year term. What would his payments be if he borrows under these terms? a. $620.67 b. $771.81 c. $733.23 d. $718.56

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His payments be if he borrows under these terms is d. $718.56.

John Jones is buying a house for $100,000. John can get a loan for 95% of the purchase price at 8% with monthly payments for a 25-year term. What would his payments be if he borrows under these terms?

The given information can be summarized as follows:

Loan = $95,000Interest rate = 8%Length of loan = 25 years

Number of payments = 12 x 25 = 300 To calculate the monthly payment, we will use the formula: Monthly payment = (P × r) / (1 - (1 + r)^-n)where

P is the principal (amount borrowed)r is the interest rate (expressed monthly)n is the total number of payments

We have:

P = $95,000r = 8% / 12 = 0.0066667n = 300 Substituting these values into the formula, we get: Monthly payment = (95000 × 0.0066667) / (1 - (1 + 0.0066667)^-300)Monthly payment = $718.56Therefore, John Jones's monthly payment would be $718.56 if he borrows under these terms.

If John Jones borrows a loan of $95000, the interest rate on this loan is 8%, with a 25-year term, then his monthly payments would be $718.56 per month. Monthly payments are calculated based on the principal amount of the loan, interest rate, and length of the loan.

The formula for calculating monthly payments is monthly payment = (P × r) / (1 - (1 + r)^-n).

P stands for the principal amount of the loan.

r is the interest rate, which is usually a percentage.

n represents the number of payments made on the loan, which is calculated by multiplying the number of years by 12.

The answer is d. $718.56.

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Equipment that was purchased for $550,000 has a current book value of $275,000.
Assume a capital gains tax rate of 28%.
Compute the net tax payment or savings if you sell the equipment for $186,267.
a. $-88,733, a savings on taxes
b. $24,845, an increase in taxes
c. $-24,845, a savings on taxes
d. $-101,845, a savings on taxes

Answers

The net tax payment or savings on the sale of the equipment is . $-24,845which is a savings on taxes. The correct answer is (c)

To calculate the net tax payment or savings, we need to determine the capital gain or loss on the sale of the equipment.

Capital Gain/Loss = Selling Price - Book Value

Capital Gain/Loss = $186,267 - $275,000

Capital Gain/Loss = -$88,733

Since the capital gain is negative (-$88,733), it means there is a capital loss. We can then calculate the tax payment or savings using the capital gains tax rate of 28%.

Net Tax Payment or Savings = Capital Gain/Loss * Tax Rate

Net Tax Payment or Savings = -$88,733 * 0.28

Net Tax Payment or Savings = -$24,845.24

Therefore, the correct answer is:

c. $-24,845, a savings on taxes.

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question 3 as a project manager creating a budget, you proactively identify factors that may impact expenses. you then take action to minimize the budgetary impact of these factors. what is this task called? 1 point estimating cost cost control bottom-up approach baselining the budget

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Cost control is the process of identifying and minimizing the budgetary impact of factors that may affect project expenses, and it involves activities such as estimating costs, monitoring actual expenses, and taking proactive measures to keep the project on track financially.

The task described in the question is called "cost control." Cost control is a fundamental responsibility of a project manager in creating and managing a budget effectively. It involves proactively identifying factors that may impact expenses and taking action to minimize their budgetary impact.To achieve cost control, a project manager engages in several activities. Firstly, they carefully estimate the costs associated with various project activities using techniques such as bottom-up estimating, where costs are determined by estimating the expenses of individual tasks and then aggregating them. This helps in establishing a baseline budget.

Once the project is underway, the project manager continuously monitors and reviews the actual expenses against the budgeted amounts. They proactively identify any deviations or potential cost overruns, comparing the planned costs with the actual costs incurred. By closely tracking and analyzing the project's financial performance, the project manager can take timely corrective actions to minimize budgetary impacts.These actions may include renegotiating contracts, exploring cost-saving alternatives, optimizing resource allocation, reevaluating project scope, or implementing efficient project management methodologies. The ultimate goal is to ensure that the project stays within the approved budget while delivering the desired outcomes.

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a current liability to the state arises when a business sells an item and collects a state sales tax on it. group of answer choices a) true. b) false.

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This statement "a current liability to the state arises when a business sells an item and collects a state sales tax on it" is option a) True.

When a business sells an item and collects a state sales tax on it, a current liability to the state arises. State sales tax is a tax imposed by the state government on the sale of goods and services. As a business collects sales tax from its customers, it becomes responsible for remitting that tax to the state. However, until the tax is remitted to the state, it represents a liability for the business.

This liability is classified as a current liability because it is expected to be settled within a relatively short period, usually within a year. The business is obligated to remit the collected sales tax to the state government according to the applicable tax laws and regulations.

When a business sells an item and collects a state sales tax on it, it incurs a current liability to the state. This reflects the obligation of the business to remit the collected tax to the state government in a timely manner. Proper management and accounting of these liabilities are essential for businesses to ensure compliance with tax regulations and maintain accurate financial records.

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In which of the following situations would you use a short hedge?
a. the planned purchase of a stock
b. the planned purchase of commercial paper
c. the planned issuance of bonds
d. the planned repurchase of stock to cover a short position
e. none of the above

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The planned repurchase of stock to cover a short position is the situations would be use a short hedge. Thus, option D is correct.

A short hedge is one that is taken on a futures contract as a form of hedge. When an asset is anticipated to be sold in the future, it is normally acceptable for a hedger to employ.

A risk management tactic used to guard against the potential loss in asset value is known as a short hedge. To protect against potential losses caused by the drop in the value of the underlying asset, it entails holding a short position in a futures contract or other derivative instrument.

An investor who shorts a stock borrows shares and then sells them in the hope that the stock's price will fall. Instead, if the stock price increases, the investor will lose money since they would have to buy back the stock to close off their short position.

In this scenario, the investor can use a short position in a futures contract on the same stock as a short hedge. The investor's losses in the short position will be offset by gains in the futures contract if the stock price does increase.

A short hedge would not be appropriate in the other choices (a, b, c, and e) because they do not include short holdings or the possibility of losses that need to be hedged.

Therefore, option D is correct.

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